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3 years ago

7

. Bơm kiểu piston tác dụng đơn có áp suất p=0,64 Mpa và lưu lượng Q=3,5 l/s. Xác định tốc độ quay của trục bơm và công suất của

bơm nếu biết đường kính piston D=150 mm; bán kính tay quay R=60 mm; hiệu suất thể tích của bơm là 0=0,94; hiệu suất chung của bơm b=0,80.

1 answer:

Viktor [21]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

not understand language

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Air expands through a turbine operating at steady state. At the inlet p1 = 150 lbf/in^2, T1 = 1400R and at the exit p2 = 14.8 lb

Paraphin [41]

Answer:

The power developed in HP is 2702.7hp

Explanation:

Given details.

P1 = 150 lbf/in^2,

T1 = 1400°R

P2 = 14.8 lbf/in^2,

T2 = 700°R

Mass flow rate m1 = m2 = m = 11 lb/s Q = -65000 Btu/h

Using air table to obtain the values for h1 and h2 at T1 and T2

h1 at T1 = 1400°R = 342.9 Btu/h

h2 at T2 = 700°R = 167.6 Btu/h

Using;

Q - W + m(h1) - m(h2) = 0

W = Q - m (h2 -h1)

W = (-65000 Btu/h ) - 11 lb/s (167.6 - 342.9) Btu/h

W = (-65000 Btu/h ) - (-1928.3) Btu/s

W = (-65000 Btu/h ) * {1hr/(60*60)s} - (-1928.3) Btu/s

W = -18.06Btu/s + 1928.3 Btu/s

W = 1910.24Btu/s

Note; Btu/s = 1.4148532hp

W = 2702.7hp

5 0

3 years ago

A sign erected on uneven ground is guyed by cables EF and EG. If the force exerted by cable EF at E is 46 lb, determine the mome

Vikki [24]

Answer:

M_AD = 1359.17 lb-in

Explanation:

Given:

- T_ef = 46 lb

Find:

- Moment of that force T_ef about the line joining points A and D.

Solution:

- Find the position of point E:

mag(BC) = sqrt ( 48^2 + 36^2) = 60 in

BE / BC = 45 / 60 = 0.75

Hence, E = < 0.75*48 , 96 , 36*0.75> = < 36 , 96 , 27 > in

- Find unit vector EF:

mag(EF) = sqrt ( (21-36)^2 + (96+14)^2 + (57-27)^2 ) = 115 in

vec(EF) = < -15 , -110 , 30 >

unit(EF) = (1/115) * < -15 , -110 , 30 >

- Tension T_EF = (46/115) * < -15 , -110 , 30 > = < -6 , -44 , 12 > lb

- Find unit vector AD:

mag(AD) = sqrt ( (48)^2 + (-12)^2 + (36)^2 ) = 12*sqrt(26) in

vec(AD) = < 48 , -12 , 36 >

unit(AD) = (1/12*sqrt(26)) * < 48 , -12 , 36 >

unit (AD) = <0.7845 , -0.19612 , 0.58835 >

Next:

M_AD = unit(AD) . ( E x T_EF)

$M_d = \left[\begin{array}{ccc}0.7845&-0.19612&0.58835\\36&96&27\\-6&-44&12\end{array}\right]$

M_AD = 1835.73 + 116.49528 - 593.0568

M_AD = 1359.17 lb-in

3 0

3 years ago

A copper-nickel alloy of composition 60 wt% Ni-40 wt% Cu is slowly heated from a temperature of 1250°C (2280 °F). (a) At what te

makkiz [27]

Answer:

a. The very first liquid process, when heated from 1250 degree Celsius, is expected to form at the temperature by which the vertical line crosses the phase boundary (a -(a + L)) which is about <em>1310 degree Celsius. </em>

b. The structure of that first liquid is identified by the intersection with ((a+ L)-L) phase boundary; <em>47wt %of Ni</em> is of a tie line formed across the (a+ L) phase area <em>at 1310 degrees.</em>

c. To find the alloy's full melting, it is determined that the intersection of the same vertical line at 60 wt percent Ni with (a -(a+L)) phase boundary is around <em>1350 degrees.</em>

c. The structure of the last remaining solid before full melting correlates to the intersection with the phase boundary (a -(a + L), of the tie line built at 1350 degrees across the (a + L) phase area, <em>being 72wt % of Ni.</em>

4 0

3 years ago

A 1 turn coil carries has a radius of 9.8 cm and a magnetic moment of 6.2 X 10 -2 Am 2. What is the current through the coil?

Alexus [3.1K]

Answer:

The current through the coil is 2.05 A

Explanation:

Given;

number of turns of the coil, N = 1

radius of the coil, r = 9.8 cm = 0.098 m

magnetic moment of the coil, P = 6.2 x 10⁻² A m²

The magnetic moment is given by;

P = IA

Where;

I is the current through the coil

A is area of the coil = πr² = π(0.098)² = 0.03018 m²

The current through the coil is given by;

I = P / A

I = (6.2 x 10⁻² ) / (0.03018)

I = 2.05 A

Therefore, the current through the coil is 2.05 A

6 0

3 years ago

A cone penetration test was carried out in normally consolidated sand, for which the results are summarized below: Depth (m) Con

Cerrena [4.2K]

Answer:

hello your question is incomplete attached below is the missing equation related to the question

answer : 40.389° , 38.987° , 38° , 39.869° , 40.265°

Explanation:

<u>Determine the friction angle at each depth</u>

attached below is the detailed solution

To calculate the vertical stress = depth * unit weight of sand

also inverse of Tan = Tan^-1

also qc is in Mpa while σ0 is in kPa

Friction angle at each depth

2 meters = 40.389°

3.5 meters = 38.987°

5 meters = 38.022°

6.5 meters = 39.869°

8 meters = 40.265°

6 0

3 years ago