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shepuryov [24]
3 years ago
10

If f(x) = (x+1)-1 and g(x) = x–2, what is the domain of Rx) = g(x)?

Mathematics
1 answer:
german3 years ago
3 0

Step-by-step explanation:

f is (x+1)-1

and g (the next letter in the alphabet) is x-2

first for f

x+1-1 = x

Then we -2 for g

So every letter there o words is just 2 less than the previous letter like

h would be h= x-4

so r(x) is g which is x-2 and x which would have to be the remaining amount to get to the number

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Learn more about inequalities brainly.com/question/20383699

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