The answer would be D. Because the iron fillings are attracted to the magnet underneath the glass.
For the answer to the question above, we'll have to use these formulas.
A) to find time to travel the 300m,
just find horizontal component of the velocity and divide.
ie x=89 x t x cos 40, t=x/89 x cos 40
<span>B) y=vtsin 40 - gt^2/2, just sub in
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I believe you can do the rest.
I hope I helped you with my answers.
Answer:
oh i would have to do alot to answer that
Answer:
The final velocity of the runner at the end of the given time is 2.7 m/s.
Explanation:
Given;
initial velocity of the runner, u = 1.1 m/s
constant acceleration, a = 0.8 m/s²
time of motion, t = 2.0 s
The velocity of the runner at the end of the given time is calculate as;
where;
v is the final velocity of the runner at the end of the given time;
v = 1.1 + (0.8)(2)
v = 2.7 m/s
Therefore, the final velocity of the runner at the end of the given time is 2.7 m/s.