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kramer
3 years ago
9

Explain why pulleys are in the lever family.

Physics
1 answer:
Aleks04 [339]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The leverage or mechanical advantage of pulleys is less obvious, but you can "gang" multiple pulleys together into two sets (blocks) and run the ropes back and forth between the two sets to increase the number of lengths of rope running between them. One end of the rope is connected (fixed) to one of the blocks, and you get to pull on the other end after it is passed back and forth between the blocks of pulleys. This is sometimes called a block and tackle arrangement. With a hook on each side of the block set, you can move a heavy load much like levers do, by multiplying the force. You have to pull more rope just like you have to move a lever more on one side of the fulcrum as compared to the other. When you get all the rope pulled out that you can, you can not move the load anymore because you have become "two-blocked" which means the two blocks are together. Credits to: Moin Khan

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what happens to the current in a circuit if the resitance of the components in the circuit is increased​
Anit [1.1K]

Answer:

The current decreases.

Explanation:

Current and resistance are inversely proportional. The equation connecting current, resistance and voltage is V = IR, where V is voltage, I is current and R is resistance.

Rearranging this equation, you get:

I = \frac{V}{R}

and

R = \frac{V}{I}

If the value of voltage in both equations remains constant, and the value of R decreases, the value of I will increase. Conversely, if in the second equation R = \frac{V}{I} , the value of V remains constant the value of I decreases, then the value of R, resistance will increase.

Thus, it can be seen that the current will decrease as resistance increases and vice versa.

7 0
2 years ago
A soccer player applies a force of 48.4 N to a soccer ball while kicking it. If the ball has
AlekseyPX

Answer:

C. 110 m/s2

Explanation:

Force = Mass x Acceleration

Since we have the force and the mass, we can rearrange this equation to solve for acceleration by dividing both sides by mass:

Force/Mass = (Mass x Acceleration)/Mass

Acceleration = Force/Mass

Now we just have to plug in our values and calculate!

Acceleration = 48.4/0.44

Acceleration = 110m/s/s

It is option C. 110 m/s2

Hope this helped!

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What are valence electrons?
SashulF [63]

Answer:

The correct answer is D. Electrons in an atom that can bond with other atoms.

Explanation:

For those of you that need it still

8 0
2 years ago
What material are you most likely to find in the D horizon
statuscvo [17]

you're most likely to find Bedrock

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A particle with charge −− 5.90 nCnC is moving in a uniform magnetic field B⃗ =−(B→=−( 1.28 TT )k^k^. The magnetic force on the p
maks197457 [2]

Answer:

Explanation:

Given that,

Charge q=-5.90nC

Magnetic field B= -1.28T k

And the magnetic force

F =−( 3.70×10−7N )i+( 7.60×10−7N )j

Let the velocity be V(xi + yj + zk)

Then, the force is given as

Note i×i=j×j×k×k=0

i×j=k. j×i=-k

j×k=i. k×j=-i

k×i=j. i×k=-j

The force in a magnetic field is given as

F= q(v×B)

−( 3.70×10−7N )i+( 7.60×10−7N )j =

q(xi + yj + zk) × -1.28k

−( 3.70×10−7N )i+( 7.60×10−7N )j=

q( -1.28x i×k - 1.28y j×k - 1.28z k×k)

−( 3.70×10−7N )i+( 7.60×10−7N )j=

q( 1.28xj - 1.28y i )

−( 3.70×10−7N )i+( 7.60×10−7N )j=

q( -1.28y i + 1.28x j)

So comparing comparing coefficients

let compare x axis component

-( 3.70×10−7N )i=-1.28qy i

−3.70×10−7N = -1.28qy

y= -3.7×10^-7/-1.28q

y= -3.7×10^-7/-1.28×-5.90×10^-9)

y=-48.99m/s

y≈-49m/s

Let compare y-axisaxis

7.6×10−7N j = 1.28qx j

7.6×10−7N = 1.28qx

x= 7.6×10^-7/1.28q

x= 7.6×10^-7/1.28×-5.90×10^-9

x=-100.64m/s

a. Then, the velocity of the x component is x= -100.64m/s

b. Also, the velocity component of the y axis is y=-49m/s

c. We will compute

V•F

V=-100.64i -49j

F=−( 3.70×10−7 N )i+( 7.60×10−7 N )j

Note

i.j=j.i=0. Also i.i = j.j =1

V•F is

(-100.64i-49j)•−(3.70×10−7N)i+(7.60×10−7 N )j =

3.724×10^-5 - 3.724×10^-5=0

V•F=0

d. Angle between V and F

V•F=|V||F|Cosx

0=|V||F|Cosx

Cosx=0

x= arccos(0)

x=90°

Since the dot product is zero, from vectors , if the dot product of two vectors is zero, then the vectors are perpendicular to each other

4 0
3 years ago
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