Answer:
load (l)=400N
Effort(E)=50N
mechanical advantage (MA)= load ÷Effort
(ma)=400÷50
(ma)=8
Explanation:
I copy pasted from the answer from the same question. Remember to first check if ur question is there
Answer:
1.2 kg
Explanation:
Let UP ramp be the positive direction
F = ma
T - Wt || - Ff = m(0)
mg - Μgsinθ - μΜgcosθ = 0
m(9.8) - 13sin35 - 0.36(13)cos35 = 0
m = 13(sin35 + 0.36cos35) / 9.8
m = 1.15205... ≈ 1.2 kg
I believe it is False, only because the plane is Frictionless. Hope this helps, good luck.
Answer:
(a) 32.5 kgm/s
(b) 32.5 Ns
(c) 10.8 N
Explanation:
The change in momentum can be calculated from the definition of linear momentum:
Then, the change in momentum of the body is of 32.5 kgm/s (a).
Now, from the impulse-momentum theorem, we know that the change in momentum of a body 
is equal to the impulse 
exerted to it. So, the impulse produced by the force equals 32.5 kgm/s (or 32.5 Ns) (b).
Finally, since we know the value of the impulse and the interval of time, we can easily solve for the magnitude of the force:
It means that the magnitude of the force is of 10.8N (c).
K=1/2 mv2
M=?
41.6kj convert to joules by multiplying by 1000 so it will be 41,600J because the unit of kinetic energy is in joules.
41,600=1/2(m)(8)
Arrange the equation it will be:
M= 41,600/4 = 10,400
Final answer is:
m= 10,400 kg
