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3 years ago

6

Where would you expect light waves to move faster?

2 answers:

KengaRu [80]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

a

Explanation:

vlabodo [156]3 years ago

6 0

I say in space which is number A. That is because there is nothing that would restrict anything in space and it is quite open and free. Hope this helped.

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Initially a car accelerates at 2 m/s2 for x seconds. The car then travels at a velocity of -6 m/s for x seconds. If the car disp

Luda [366]

Answer:

The time travel is

t=8 s

Explanation:

$a= 2 \frac{m}{s^{2} } \\v=-6 \frac{m}{s} \\x=16m$

$x_{f}=x_{o}+v_{o}*t+\frac{1}{2} *a*t^{2}$

$x_{f}=0-6*t+\frac{1}{2} *2*t^{2}$

$t^{2}-6*t-16=0\\ using :\\\frac{-b+/-\sqrt{b^{2}-4*c*a } }{2} \\\frac{-(-6)+/-\sqrt{(-6)^{2}-4*(-16)*(1) } }{2}=\frac{3}{2} +/- \frac{10}{2} \\t_{1} = 2s \\t_{2} = 8s$

Check

$t_{2}=8s$

$x_{f}=x_{o}+v_{o}*t+\frac{1}{2} *a*t^{2}$

$x_{f}=0-6*+\frac{1}{2} *2*8^{2}$

$x_{f}=-48+64\\x_{f}=16$

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3 years ago

Dr. james van allen and his group of united states scientists discovered a set of ___________. magnetic equators planets magneti

Fofino [41]

RADIATION BELTS....... I think but it should be radiation belt

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Sharon throws a 0.20 Kg with an acceleration of 10 m/s/s.

OlgaM077 [116]

Force=A×M
10m/s×0.20kg
=2Newton

4 0

3 years ago

The pattern of weather in an area overtime is called

zzz [600]

The pattern of the temperature in a region day by day is called weather. The year by year temperature is a called climate.

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3 years ago

An experiment is conducted on a long straight wire of diameter d. A constant current is sent through the wire and the magnetic f

soldi70 [24.7K]

Answer:

D.

Explanation:

To solve the exercise it is necessary to apply the concepts related to the Magnetic Field described by Faraday.

The magnetic field is given by the equation:

$B = \frac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi d}$

Where,

$\mu =$ Permeability constant

d = diameter

I = Current

For the given problem we have a change in the diameter, twice that of the initial experiment, therefore we define that:

$B_1 = \frac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi d}$

$B_2 = \frac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi 2d}$

The ratio of change between the two is given by:

$\frac{B_2}{B_1} = \frac{\frac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi d}}{\frac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi 2d}}$

$\frac{B_2}{B_1} = \frac{d}{2d}$

$\frac{B_2}{B_1} = \frac{1}{2}$

$B_2 = B_1 \frac{1}{2}$

Therefore the correct answer is D.

4 0

3 years ago