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il63 [147K]
2 years ago
10

Particles q1 = +8.0 UC, 92 = +3.5 uc, and

Physics
2 answers:
nevsk [136]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

-22.3

Explanation:

Acellus

Olin [163]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

   F_total = 29.4 N,    directed to the right of particle 2

Explanation:

We must solve this problem in parts, first we calculate each force and then we apply Newton's law to add the forces.

Let's use Coulomb's law to calculate each force

         F = k \frac{q_1q_2}{r_{12}^2}

particles 1 and 2

q₁ = 8.0 10⁻⁶ C, q₂ = 3.5 10⁻⁶ C x₁₂ = 0.10 m

         F₁₂ = 9 10⁹ 8.0 3.5 10⁻¹² / 0.1²

         F₁₂ = 2.59 10¹ N

Since the two charges are of the same sign, this force is repulsive and is directed towards the positive side of the x axis.

particles 2 and 3

q₂ = 3.6 10⁻⁶ C, q₃ = 2.5 10⁻⁶ C, x₂₃ = 0.15 m

we calculate

        F₂₃ = 9 10⁹ 3.5 2.5 10⁻¹²/ 0.15²

        F₂₃ = 3.5 N

as the charge is of different sign, the force is attractive, therefore it is directed to the right of the load 2

Now we add the forces as vectors

        F_total = ∑ F = F₁₂ + F₂₃

        F_total = 25.2 +3.5

        F_total = 29.4 N

directed to the right of particle 2

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A 2.00 kg block on a horizontal floor is attached to a horizontal spring that is initially compressed 0.0300 m . The spring has
iogann1982 [59]

Answer:

v = 0.41 m/s

Explanation:

  • In this case, the change in the mechanical energy, is equal to the work done by the fricition force on the block.
  • At any point, the total mechanical energy is the sum of the kinetic energy plus the elastic potential energy.
  • So, we can write the following general equation, taking the initial and final values of the energies:

       \Delta K + \Delta U = W_{ffr}  (1)

  • Since the block and spring start at rest, the change in the kinetic energy is just the final kinetic energy value, Kf.
  • ⇒ Kf = 1/2*m*vf²  (2)
  • The change in the potential energy, can be written as follows:

       \Delta U = U_{f}  - U_{o}  = \frac{1}{2} * k * (x_{f} ^{2} - x_{0} ^{2} ) (3)

       where k = force constant = 815 N/m

       xf = final displacement of the block = 0.01 m (taking as x=0 the position

      for the spring at equilibrium)

      x₀ = initial displacement of  the block = 0.03 m

  • Regarding the work done by the force of friction, it can be written as follows:

       W_{ffr} = - \mu_{k}* F_{n} * \Delta x  (4)

       where μk = coefficient of kinettic friction, Fn = normal force, and Δx =

       horizontal displacement.

  • Since the surface is horizontal, and no acceleration is present in the vertical direction, the normal force must be equal and opposite to the force due to gravity, Fg:
  • Fn = Fg= m*g (5)
  • Replacing (5) in (4), and (3) and (4) in (1), and rearranging, we get:

        \frac{1}{2} * m* v^{2} = W_{ffr} - \Delta U = W_{ffr} - (U_{f} -U_{o})  (6)

        \frac{1}{2} * m* v^{2} = (- \mu_{k}* m*g* \Delta x)  -\frac{1}{2} * k * (x_{f} ^{2} - x_{0} ^{2} ) (7)

  • Replacing by the values of m, k, g, xf and x₀, in (7) and solving for v, we finally get:

    \frac{1}{2} * 2.00 kg* v^{2}  = (-0.4*2.00 kg*9.8m/s2*0.02m) +( (\frac{1}{2} *815 N/m)* (0.03m)^{2} - (0.01m)^{2}) = -0.1568 J + 0.326 J (8)

  • v =\sqrt{(0.326-0.1568}  =  0.41 m/s  (9)
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Answer:

Explanation:

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Physics 1
Degger [83]

The emf is induced in the wire will be 1.56 ×10 ⁻³ V. The induced emf is the product of the magnetic field,velocity and length of the wire.

<h3>What is induced emf?</h3>

Emf is the production of a potential difference in a coil as a result of changes in the magnetic flux passing through it.

When the flux coupling with a conductor or coil changes, electromotive Force, or EMF, is said to be induced.

The given data in the problem is;

B is the magnitude of the magnetic field,= 5.0 ×10⁻⁵ T

V(velocity)=125 M/SEC

L(length)=25 cm=0.25 m

The maximum emf is found as;

E=VBLsin90°

E=125 × 5.0 × 10⁻⁵ ×0.25

E=1.56 ×10 ⁻³ V

Hence, the emf is induced in the wire will be 1.56 ×10 ⁻³ V

To learn more about the induced emf, refer to the link;

brainly.com/question/16764848

#SPJ1

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