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stealth61 [152]
3 years ago
15

If the particles were moving with a speed much less than c, the magnitude of the momentum of the second particle would be twice

that of the first. However, what is the ratio of the magnitudes of momentum for these relativistic particles?
Physics
1 answer:
Natalija [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

p₂ / p₁ = 2 (v₁ / v₂)

Explanation:

The moment is a very useful concept, since it is one of the quantities that is conserved during shocks and explosions, for which it had to be redefined to be consistent with special relativity,

         p = m v / √[1+ (v/c)² ]

for the case of speeds much lower than the speed of light this expression is close to

         p = m v

 

In this exercise they indicate that the moment of the second particle is twice the moment of the first, when their velocities are small

        p₂ = 2 p₁

       p₂/p₁ = 2

in consecuense

       m v₂ = 2 m v₁

       v₂ = 2 v₁

consider particles of equal mass.

By the time their speeds increase they enter the relativistic regime

        p₂ = mv₂ /√(1 + v₂² /c²)

        p₁ = m v₁ /√(1 + v₁² / c²)

let's look for the relationship between these two moments

       p₂ / p₁ = mv₂ / mv₁   [√ (1+ v₁² / c²) /√ (1 + v₂² / c²)

       

from the initial statement

      p₂ / p₁ = 2 √(c² + v₁²) / (c² + v₂²)

we take c from the root

      p₂ / p₁ = 2 √ [(1+ v₁²) / (1 + v₂²)]

this is the exact result, to have an approximate shape suppose that the velocities are much greater than 1

      p₂ / p₁ = 2 √ [v₁² / v₂²] = 2 √ [(v₁ / v₂)²]

      p₂ / p₁ = 2 (v₁ / v₂)

we see the value of the moment depends on the speed of the particles

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igor_vitrenko [27]

Answer:

Explanation:

potential energy of compressed spring

= 1/2 k d²

= 1/2 x 730 d²

= 365 d²

This energy will be given to block of mass of 1.2 kg in the form of kinetic energy .

Kinetic energy after crossing the rough patch

= 1/2 x 1.2 x 2.3²

= 3.174 J

Loss of energy

= 365 d² - 3.174  

This loss is due to negative work done by frictional force

work done by friction = friction force x width of patch

= μmg d ,   μ = coefficient of friction , m is mass of block , d is width of patch

= .44 x 1.2 x 9.8 x .05

= .2587 J

365 d² - 3.174   = .2587

365 d² = 3.4327

d² = 3.4327 / 365

= .0094

d = .097 m

= 9.7 cm

If friction increases , loss of energy increases . so to achieve same kinetic energy , d will have to be increased so that initial energy increases so compensate increased loss .

5 0
3 years ago
Determine the power that needs to besupplied by the fanifthe desired velocity is 0.05 m3/s and the cross-sectional area is 20 cm
Mariulka [41]

Answer:

A fan with an energy efficiency of 30 % would need 62.5 watts to bring a desired volume flow of 0.05 cubic meters per second through a cross-sectional area of 20 square centimeters.

Explanation:

Complete statement is: <em>Determine the power that needs to besupplied by the fan if the desired velocity is 0.05 cubic meters per second and the cross-sectional area is 20 square centimeters.</em>

From Thermodynamics and Fluid Mechanics we know that fans are devices that work at steady state which accelerate gases (i.e. air) with no changes in pressure. In this case, mechanical rotation energy is transformed into kinetic energy. If we include losses due to mechanical friction, the Principle of Energy Conservation presents the following equation:

\eta\cdot \dot W = \dot K

\dot W = \frac{\dot K}{\eta} (Eq. 1)

Where:

\eta - Efficiency of fan, dimensionless.

\dot W - Electric power supplied fan, measured in watts.

\dot K - Rate of change of kinetic energy of air in time, measured in watts.

From definition of kinetic energy, the equation above is now expanded:

\dot W = \frac{\rho_{a}\cdot \dot V}{2\cdot \eta}\cdot \left(\frac{\dot V}{A_{s}} \right)^{2} (Eq. 2)

Where:

\rho_{a} - Density of air, measured in kilograms per cubic meter.

\dot V - Volume flow, measured in cubic meters per second.

A_{s} - Cross-sectional area of fan, measured in square meters.

If we know that \rho_{a} = 1.20\,\frac{kg}{m^{3}}, \dot V = 0.05\,\frac{m^{3}}{s}, \eta = 0.3 and A_{s} = 20\times 10^{-4}\,m^{2}, the power needed to be supplied by the fan is:

\dot K = \left[\frac{\left(1.20\,\frac{kg}{m^{3}} \right)\cdot \left(0.05\,\frac{m^{3}}{s} \right)}{2\cdot (0.3)} \right]\cdot \left(\frac{0.05\,\frac{m^{3}}{s} }{20\times 10^{-4}\,m^{2}} \right)^{2}

\dot K = 62.5\,W

A fan with an energy efficiency of 30 % would need 62.5 watts to bring a desired volume flow of 0.05 cubic meters per second through a cross-sectional area of 20 square centimeters.

5 0
3 years ago
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avanturin [10]

Answer:

vb = 22.13 m/s

So, the only thing that was measured here was the height of point A relative to point B. And the Law of Conservation of Energy was used.

Explanation:

In order to find the speed of roller coaster at Point B, we will use the law of conservation of Energy. In this situation, the law of conservation of energy states that:

K.E at A + P.E at A = K.E at B + P.E at B

(1/2)mvₐ² + mghₐ = (1/2)m(vb)² + mg(hb)

(1/2)vₙ² + ghₐ = (1/2)(vb)² + g(hb)

where,

vₙ = velocity of roller coaster at point a = 0 m/s

hₙ = height of roller coaster at point a = 25 m

g = 9.8 m/s²

vb = velocity of roller coaster at point B = ?

hb = Height of Point B = 0 m (since, point is the reference point)

Therefore,

(1/2)(0 m/s)² + (9.8 m/s²)(25 m) = (1/2)(vb)² + (9.8 m/s²)(0 m)

245 m²/s² * 2 = vb²

vb = √(490 m²/s²)

<u>vb = 22.13 m/s</u>

<u>So, the only thing that was measured here was the height of point A relative to point B. And the Law of Conservation of Energy was used.</u>

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marshall27 [118]

Answer : The final pressure of the system in atm is, 3.64 atm

Explanation :

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V_1 = first volume = 2.14 L

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P_f = final pressure = ?

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8.19atm\times 2.14L+2.65atm\times 9.84L=P_f\times 11.98L

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