All categories

2 years ago

NEED HELP NOW I WILL BRAINLIEST

Physics

1 answer:

QveST [7]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

C. 16 grams

Explanation:

0 0=2.7x0 256=256÷1

1 2.7=2.7x1 128=256÷2

2 5.4=2.7x2 64=128÷2

3 8.1=2.7x3 32=64÷2

4 10.8=2.7x4 ???=32÷2

You might be interested in

What current flows through a 2.56-cm-diameter rod of pure silicon that is 20.0 cm long, when 1.00 ✕ 103 V is applied to it? (Suc

vfiekz [6]

Answer:

Current, I = 0.0011 A

Explanation:

It is given that,

Diameter of rod, d = 2.56 cm

Radius of rod, r = 1.28 cm = 0.0128 m

The resistivity of the pure silicon, $\rho=2300\ \Omega-m$

Length of rod, l = 20 cm = 0.2 m

Voltage, $V=1\times 10^3\ V$

The resistivity of the rod is given by :

$R=\rho\dfrac{L}{A}$

$R=2300\ \Omega-m\dfrac{0.2\ m}{\pi (0.0128\ m)^2}$

R = 893692.30 ohms

Current flowing in the rod is calculated using Ohm's law as :

V = I R

$I=\dfrac{V}{R}$

$I=\dfrac{10^3\ V}{893692.30\ \Omega}$

I = 0.0011 A

So, the current flowing in the rod is 0.0011 A. Hence, this is the required solution.

6 0

2 years ago

Find the mass of an object if a 40 N of force causes the object to accelerate at 5.5 m/s/s

Murrr4er [49]

Answer:

<h3>The answer is 8 kg</h3>

Explanation:

The mass of the object can be found by using the formula

$m = \frac{f}{a} \\$

f is the force

a is the acceleration

From the question we have

$m = \frac{40}{5} \\$

We have the final answer as

Hope this helps you

7 0

3 years ago

A mass m attached to a horizontal massless spring with spring constant k, is set into simple harmonic motion. its maximum displa

Lesechka [4]

At the point of maximum displacement (a), the elastic potential energy of the spring is maximum:
$U_i= \frac{1}{2} ka^2$
while the kinetic energy is zero, because at the maximum displacement the mass is stationary, so its velocity is zero:
$K_i =0$
And the total energy of the system is
$E_i = U_i+K= \frac{1}{2}ka^2$

Viceversa, when the mass reaches the equilibrium position, the elastic potential energy is zero because the displacement x is zero:
$U_f = 0$
while the mass is moving at speed v, and therefore the kinetic energy is
$K_f = \frac{1}{2} mv^2$
And the total energy is
$E_f = U_f + K_f = \frac{1}{2} mv^2$

For the law of conservation of energy, the total energy must be conserved, therefore $E_i = E_f$ . So we can write
$\frac{1}{2} ka^2 = \frac{1}{2}mv^2$
that we can solve to find an expression for v:
$v= \sqrt{ \frac{ka^2}{m} }$

6 0

2 years ago

hi friends how are you I am fine but I am positive coronavirus I am very poor my father my mother my brother my sister was coron

Marianna [84]

Answer:

Just to be clear if you are poor, this is not the place to go. There are several institution that will be willing to help you out. If you can get on Brainly, then you can also do some research that will actually help you

Explanation:

7 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A coil is wrapped with 300 turns of wire on the perimeter of a circular frame (radius = 8.0 cm). Each turn has the same area, eq

TiliK225 [7]

Answer:

Approximately 18 volts when the magnetic field strength increases from $\rm 20\; mT$ to $\rm 80\;mT$ at a constant rate.

Explanation:

By the Faraday's Law of Induction, the EMF $\epsilon$ that a changing magnetic flux induces in a coil is:

$\displaystyle \epsilon = N \cdot \frac{d\phi}{dt}$ ,

where

$N$ is the number of turns in the coil, and
$\displaystyle \frac{d\phi}{dt}$ is the rate of change in magnetic flux through this coil.

However, for a coil the magnetic flux $\phi$ is equal to

$\phi = B \cdot A\cdot \cos{\theta}$ ,

where

$B$ is the magnetic field strength at the coil, and
$A\cdot \cos{\theta}$ is the area of the coil perpendicular to the magnetic field.

For this coil, the magnetic field is perpendicular to coil, so $\theta = 0$ and $A\cdot \cos{\theta} = A$ . The area of this circular coil is equal to $\pi\cdot r^{2} = \pi\times 8.0\times 10^{-2}\approx \rm 0.0201062\; m^{2}$ .

$A\cdot \cos{\theta} = A$ doesn't change, so the rate of change in the magnetic flux $\phi$ through the coil depends only on the rate of change in the magnetic field strength $B$ . The size of the magnetic field at the instant that $B = \rm 50\; mT$ will not matter as long as the rate of change in $B$ is constant.

$\displaystyle \begin{aligned} \frac{d\phi}{dt} &= \frac{\Delta B}{\Delta t}\times A \\&= \rm \frac{80\times 10^{-3}\; T- 20\times 10^{-3}\; T}{20\times 10^{-3}\; s}\times 0.0201062\;m^{2}\\&= \rm 0.0603186\; T\cdot m^{2}\cdot s^{-1}\end{aligned}$ .

As a result,

$\displaystyle \epsilon = N \cdot \frac{d\phi}{dt} = \rm 300 \times 0.0603186\; T\cdot m^{2}\cdot s^{-1} \approx 18\; V$ .

6 0

3 years ago