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katovenus [111]
3 years ago
6

What is a beam on a bridge? what does it do?

Engineering
1 answer:
kolbaska11 [484]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

A beam carries vertical loads

Explanation:

In bridge: Beam. The beam bridge is the most common bridge form. A beam carries vertical loads by bending. As the beam bridge bends, it undergoes horizontal compression on the top.

I hope this answered your question, if not let me know :)

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Cold forging makes metal more workable than hot forging.<br> True<br> False
Whitepunk [10]

Answer:

I don't really know but i have some info for you...

Explanation:

The cold forging manufacturing process increases the strength of a metal through strain hardening at a room temperature. On the contrary the hot forging manufacturing process keeps materials from strain hardening at high temperature, which results in optimum yield strength, low hardness and high ductility.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A saturated 1.5 ft3 clay sample has a natural water content of 25%, shrinkage limit (SL) of 12% and a specific gravity (GS) of 2
Svetllana [295]

79 f t^{3} is the volume of the sample when the water content is 10%.

<u>Explanation:</u>

Given Data:

V_{1}=100\ \mathrm{ft}^{3}

First has a natural water content of 25% = \frac{25}{100} = 0.25

Shrinkage limit, w_{1}=12 \%=\frac{12}{100}=0.12

G_{s}=2.70

We need to determine the volume of the sample when the water content is 10% (0.10). As we know,

V \propto[1+e]

\frac{V_{2}}{V_{1}}=\frac{1+e_{2}}{1+e_{1}}  ------> eq 1

e_{1}=\frac{w_{1} \times G_{s}}{S_{r}}

The above equation is at S_{r}=1,

e_{1}=w_{1} \times G_{s}

Applying the given values, we get

e_{1}=0.25 \times 2.70=0.675

Shrinkage limit is lowest water content

e_{2}=w_{2} \times G_{s}

Applying the given values, we get

e_{2}=0.12 \times 2.70=0.324

Applying the found values in eq 1, we get

\frac{V_{2}}{100}=\frac{1+0.324}{1+0.675}=\frac{1.324}{1.675}=0.7904

V_{2}=0.7904 \times 100=79\ \mathrm{ft}^{3}

7 0
3 years ago
A 132mm diameter solid circular section​
Ganezh [65]

Answer:

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5 0
3 years ago
The value of Rth is *
Vladimir79 [104]
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4 0
3 years ago
What are the de Broglie frequencies and wavelengths of (a) an electron accelerated to 50 eV (b) a proton accelerated to 100 eV
DaniilM [7]

Answer:

(a) De-Brogie wavelength is 0.173 nm and frequency is 2.42 x 10^16 Hz

(b) De-Brogie wavelength is 2.875 pm and frequency is 4.8 x 10^16 Hz

Explanation:

(a)

First, we need to find velocity of electron. Since, it is accelerated by electric potential. Therefore,

K.E of electron = (1/2)mv² = (50 eV)(1.6 x 10^-19 J/1 eV)

(1/2)mv² = 8 x 10^(-18) J

Mass of electron = m = 9.1 x 10^(-31) kg

Therefore,

v² = [8 x 10^(-18) J](2)/(9.1 x 10^(-31) kg)

v = √1.75 x 10^13

v = 4.2 x 10^6 m/s

Now, the de Broglie's wavelength is given as:

λ = h/mv

where,

h = Plank's Constant = 6.626 x 10^(-34) kg.m²/s

Therefore,

λ = (6.626 x 10^(-34) kg.m²/s)/(9.1 x 10^(-31) kg)(4.2 x 10^6 m/s)

<u>λ = 0.173 x 10^(-9) m = 0.173 nm</u>

The frequency is given as:

Frequency = f = v/λ

f = (4.2 x 10^6 m/s)/(0.173 x 10^(-9) m)

<u>f = 2.42 x 10^16 Hz</u>

(b)

First, we need to find velocity of proton. Since, it is accelerated by electric potential. Therefore,

K.E of proton = (1/2)mv² = (100 eV)(1.6 x 10^-19 J/1 eV)

(1/2)mv² = 1.6 x 10^(-17) J

Mass of proton = m = 1.67 x 10^(-27) kg

Therefore,

v² = [1.6 x 10^(-17) J](2)/(1.67 x 10^(-27) kg)

v = √1.916 x 10^10

v = 1.38 x 10^5 m/s

Now, the de Broglie's wavelength is given as:

λ = h/mv

where,

h = Plank's Constant = 6.626 x 10^(-34) kg.m²/s

Therefore,

λ = (6.626 x 10^(-34) kg.m²/s)/(1.67 x 10^(-27) kg)(1.38 x 10^5 m/s)

<u>λ = 2.875 x 10^(-12) m = 2.875 pm</u>

The frequency is given as:

Frequency = f = v/λ

f = (1.38 x 10^5 m/s)/(2.875 x 10^(-12) m)

<u>f = 4.8 x 10^16 Hz</u>

6 0
4 years ago
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