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Sedbober [7]
3 years ago
15

A group of students are playing tug-of-war. The students on both

Physics
1 answer:
Andrews [41]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

newton's first law

Explanation:

this is because newton's first law of motion states that every object will continue in its state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line unless a resultant force acts on it.

hope this helps, if you want more elaboration, tell me

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Two power lines run parallel for a distance of 222 m and are separated by a distance of 40.0 cm. if the current in each of the t
earnstyle [38]
1) Magnitude of the force:

The magnetic field generated by a current-carrying wire is
B= \frac{\mu_0I}{2 \pi r}
where
\mu_0 is the vacuum permeability
I is the current in the wire
r is the distance at which the field is calculated

Using I=135 A, the current flowing in each wire, we can calculate the magnetic field generated by each wire at distance 
r=40.0 cm=0.40 m, 
which is the distance at which the other wire is located:
B= \frac{\mu_0 I}{2 \pi r}= \frac{(4 \pi \cdot 10^{-7} N/A^2)(135 A) }{2 \pi (0.40 m)}=6.75 \cdot 10^{-5} T

Then we can calculate the magnitude of the force exerted on each wire by this magnetic field, which is given by:
F=ILB=(135 A)(222 m)(6.75 \cdot 10^{-5}T)=2.03 N

2) direction of the force: 
The two currents run in opposite direction: this means that the force between them is repulsive. This can be determined by using the right hand rule. Let's apply it to one of the two wires, assuming they are in the horizontal plane, and assuming that the current in the wire on the right is directed northwards:
- the magnetic field produced by the wire on the left at the location of the wire on the right is directed upward (the thumb of the right hand is directed as the current, due south, and the other fingers give the direction of the magnetic field, upward)

Now let's apply the right-hand rule to the wire on the right:
- index finger: current --> northward
- middle finger: magnetic field --> upward
- thumb: force --> due east --> so the force is repulsive

A similar procedure can be used on the wire on the left, finding that the force exerted on it is directed westwards, so the force between the two wires is repulsive.
6 0
3 years ago
Jhon is 12 y o his train is 5 minutes late Jhon has an apple that wheigs half it s own mass calculate the mass of the sun​
pav-90 [236]
Given the following information we have 20 watermelons from mark and 10 fishes from kim therefore we add the longitude of Walmart to the latitude of sams club and end up with a total of 1,000 dish soaps then we convert that into inches which leaves us at 20,000,000 inches of cats then multiply that number to 10 giraffes and we get
1.989 × 10^30 kg and therefore the mass of the sun is 1.989 × 10^30 kg.
7 0
3 years ago
How to convert 40m/min to km/h? need step by step explanation​
Hitman42 [59]

Answer:

i have no clue i just need brailnly points

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How long does it take the students’ kettle to come to the boil if 3 kg of ice at 0 °C is put in it? The latent heat of fusion of
Alborosie

Answer:

Explanation:

111.333

3 0
3 years ago
A spaceship ferrying workers to Moon Base I takes a straight-line path from the earth to the moon, a distance of 384,000 km. Sup
Tema [17]

Answer:

a) v = 19,149.6 m/s

b) f = 95%

c) t = 346.5min

Explanation:

First put all values in metric units:

15.8 min*\frac{60s}{1min}=948s

The equation of motion you need is:

v_f = a*t+v_0

where v_f is the final velocity, a is acceleration and t is time in hours.

Since the spaceship starts from 0 velocity:

v_f = a*t = 20.2*948 = 19,149.6 m/s

Next, you need to calculate the distances traveled on each interval, considering that both starting and final intervals travel the same distance because the acceleration and time are equal. For this part you need the next motion equation:

x=\frac{v_0+v_f}{2}t

solving for first and last interval:

Since the spaceship starts and finish with 0 velocity:

x=\frac{v}{2}t=\frac{19,149.6}{2}948=9,076,910.4m=9,076.9104km

Then the ship traveled 384,000-9,076.9104*2 = 361,846.1792km at constant speed, which means that it traveled:

f_{constant_speed} =\frac{ x_{constant_speed}}{x_total} =\frac{361,846.1792}{380,000} =0.95

Which in percentage is 95% of the trip.

to calculate total time you need to calculate the time used during constant speed:

t = \frac{361,846,179.2}{19,149.6} = 18,895.75s = 314min

That added to the other interval times:

t_{total} = t_1+t_2+t_3=15.8+314.93+15.8=346.5min

5 0
3 years ago
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