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Scilla [17]
3 years ago
8

PE (potential energy) + KE (kinetic energy) will equal ME (mechanical energy) ... explain this in your own words, or by using an

example.
Physics
2 answers:
sdas [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Potential energy plus kinetic energy equals mechanical energy because mechanical energy is basically just all of an object's energy, it's just two kinds of energy. The potential is stored inside and kinetic is being used. Both of those together is the total amount of the objects energy, which is the mechanical energy.

Explanation:

r-ruslan [8.4K]3 years ago
5 0
Possible energy in addition to kinetic energy approaches mechanical energy in light of the fact that mechanical energy is essentially only the entirety of an article's energy, it's only two sorts of energy. The potential is put away inside and dynamic is being utilized. Both of those together is the aggregate sum of the articles energy, which is the mechanical energy
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Will give brainlist.
Lera25 [3.4K]

Answer:

<u>Displacement (km)</u>

Explanation:

The y axis is the vertical axis pointing up and down. This is labeled as the the displacement (km) in the graph.

6 0
3 years ago
According to a rule-of-thumb. every five seconds between a lightning flash and the following thunder gives the distance to the f
Bond [772]

Answer:

S_{s}=300 m/s

The rule for kilometers is that every three seconds between a lightning flash and the following thunder gives the distance to the flash in kilometers.

Explanation:

In order to use the rule of thumb to find the speed of sound in meters per second, we need to use some conversion ratios. We know there is 1 mile per every 5 seconds after the lightning is seen. We also know that there are 5280ft in 1 mile and we also know that there are 0.3048m in 1ft. This is enough information to solve this problem. We set our conversion ratios like this:

\frac{1mi}{5s}*\frac{5280ft}{1mi}*\frac{0.3048m}{1ft}=321.87m/s

notice how the ratios were written in such a way that the units got cancelled when calculating them. Notice that in one ratio the miles were on the numerator of the fraction while on the other they were on the denominator, which allows us to cancel them. The same happened with the feet.

The problem asks us to express the answer to one significant figure so the speed of sound rounds to 300m/s.

For the second part of the problem we need to use conversions again. This time we will write our ratios backwards and take into account that there are 1000m to 1 km, so we get:

\frac{5s}{1mi}*\frac{1mi}{5280ft}*\frac{1ft}{0.3048m}*\frac{1000m}{1km}=3.11s/km

This means that for every 3.11s there will be a distance of 1km from the place where the lightning stroke. Since this is a rule of thumb, we round to the nearest integer for the calculations to be made easily, so the rule goes like this:

The rule for kilometers is that every three seconds between a lightning flash and the following thunder gives the distance to the flash in kilometers.

3 0
3 years ago
Which of the following are scalar quantities?
kirill [66]

Speed, being a scalar quantity, is the rate at which an object covers distance. The average speed is the distance (a scalar quantity) per time ratio. ... Velocity is the rate at which the position changes. The average velocity is the displacement or position change (a vector quantity) per time ratio.

3 0
3 years ago
A single-turn circular loop of wire of radius 45 mm lies in a plane perpendicular to a spatially uniform magnetic field. During
Lina20 [59]

Answer:

Magnitude of induced emf is 0.00635 V

Explanation:

Radius of circular loop r = 45 mm = 0.045 m

Area of circular loop A=\pi r^2

A=3.14\times 0.045^2=0.00635m^2

Magnetic field is increases from 250 mT to 350 mT

Therefore change in magnetic field dB=250-350=100mT

Emf induced is given by

e=-N\frac{d\Phi }{dt}=-NA\frac{dB}{dt}

e=-0.00635\times \frac{100\times 10^{-3}}{0.10}=-0.00635V

Magnitude of induced emf is equal to 0.00635 V

7 0
3 years ago
Importance of simple machines pleasecgive answer in points​
oksian1 [2.3K]

Answer:

Explanation:

The inclined plane

An inclined plane consists of a sloping surface; it is used for raising heavy bodies. The plane offers a mechanical advantage in that the force required to move an object up the incline is less than the weight being raised (discounting friction). The steeper the slope, or incline, the more nearly the required force approaches the actual weight. Expressed mathematically, the force F required to move a block D up an inclined plane without friction is equal to its weight W times the sine of the angle the inclined plane makes with the horizontal (θ). The equation is F = W sin θ.

The lever

A lever is a bar or board that rests on a support called a fulcrum. A downward force exerted on one end of the lever can be transferred and increased in an upward direction at the other end, allowing a small force to lift a heavy weight.

The wedge

A wedge is an object that tapers to a thin edge. Pushing the wedge in one direction creates a force in a sideways direction. It is usually made of metal or wood and is used for splitting, lifting, or tightening, as in securing a hammer head onto its handle.

The wheel and axle

A wheel and axle is made up of a circular frame (the wheel) that revolves on a shaft or rod (the axle). In its earliest form it was probably used for raising weights or water buckets from wells.

Its principle of operation is best explained by way of a device with a large gear and a small gear attached to the same shaft. The tendency of a force, F, applied at the radius R on the large gear to turn the shaft is sufficient to overcome the larger force W at the radius r on the small gear. The force amplification, or mechanical advantage, is equal to the ratio of the two forces (W:F) and also equal to the ratio of the radii of the two gears (R:r)

7 0
3 years ago
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