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olya-2409 [2.1K]
3 years ago
14

The 6 penalties for driving under influence

Engineering
1 answer:
makvit [3.9K]3 years ago
6 0
Young offenders, jail, fines, license troubles, DUI, and punishments
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Refrigerant 22 flows in a theoretical single-stage compression refrigeration cycle with a mass flow rate of 0.05 kg/s. The conde
Debora [2.8K]

Answer:

a.  The work done by the compressor is 447.81 Kj/kg

b. The heat rejected from the condenser in kJ/kg is 187.3 kJ/kg

c. The heat absorbed by the evaporator in kJ/kg is 397.81 Kj/Kg

d. The coefficient of performance is 2.746

e. The refrigerating efficiency is 71.14%

Explanation:

According to the given data we would need first the conversion of temperaturte from C to K as follows:

Temperature at evaporator inlet= Te=-16+273=257 K

Temperatue at condenser exit=Te=48+273=321 K

Enthalpy at evaporator inlet of Te -16=i3=397.81 Kj/Kg

Enthalpy at evaporator exit of Te 48=i1=260.51 Kj/Kg

b. To calculate the the heat rejected from the condenser in kJ/kg we would need to calculate the Enthalpy at the compressor exit by using the compressor equation as follows:

w=i4-i3

W/M=i4-i3

i4=W/M + i3

i4=2.5/0.05 + 397.81

i4=447.81 Kj/kg

a. Enthalpy at the compressor exit=447.81 Kj/kg

Therefore, the heat rejected from the condenser in kJ/kg=i4-i1

the heat rejected from the condenser in kJ/kg=447.81-260.51

the heat rejected from the condenser in kJ/kg=187.3 kJ/kg

c. Temperature at evaporator inlet= Te=-16+273=257 K

The heat absorbed by the evaporator in kJ/kg is Enthalpy at evaporator inlet of Te -16=i3=397.81 Kj/Kg

d. To calculate the coefficient of performance we use the following formula:

coefficient of performance=Refrigerating effect/Energy input

coefficient of performance=137.3/50

coefficient of performance=2.746

the coefficient of performance is 2.746

e. The refrigerating efficiency = COP/COPc

COPc=Te/(Tc-Te)

COPc=255/(321-255)

COPc=3.86

refrigerating efficiency=2.746/3.86

refrigerating efficiency=0.7114=71.14%

8 0
4 years ago
Pople died but live gese the anser
Nezavi [6.7K]

Answer:

people die but live geese the answer

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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A solid shaft and a hollow shaft of the same material have same length and outer radius R. The inner radius of the hollow shaft
alexandr402 [8]

Answer with Explanation:

By the equation or Torque we have

\frac{T}{I_{p}}=\frac{\tau }{r}=\frac{G\theta }{L}

where

T is the torque applied on the shaft

I_{p} is the polar moment of inertia of the shaft

\tau is the shear stress developed at a distance 'r' from the center of the shaft

\theta is the angle of twist of the shaft

'G' is the modulus of rigidity of the shaft

We know that for solid shaft I_{p}=\frac{\pi R^4}{2}

For a hollow shaft I_{p}=\frac{\pi (R_o^4-R_i^4)}{2}

Since the two shafts are subjected to same torque from the relation of Torque we have

1) For solid shaft

\frac{2T}{\pi R^4}\times r=\tau _{solid}

2) For hollow shaft we have

\tau _{hollow}=\frac{2T}{\pi (R^4-0.7R^4)}\times r=\frac{2T}{\pi 0.76R^4}

Comparing the above 2 relations we see

\frac{\tau _{solid}}{\tau _{hollow}}=0.76

Similarly for angle of twist we can see

\frac{\theta _{solid}}{\theta _{hollow}}=\frac{\frac{LT}{I_{solid}}}{\frac{LT}{I_{hollow}}}=\frac{I_{hollow}}{I_{solid}}=1.316

Part b)

Strength of solid shaft = \tau _{max}=\frac{T\times R}{I_{solid}}

Weight of solid shaft =\rho \times \pi R^2\times L

Strength per unit weight of solid shaft = \frac{\tau _{max}}{W}=\frac{T\times R}{I_{solid}}\times \frac{1}{\rho \times \pi R^2\times L}=\frac{2T}{\rho \pi ^2R^5L}

Strength of hollow shaft = \tau '_{max}=\frac{T\times R}{I_{hollow}}

Weight of hollow shaft =\rho \times \pi (R^2-0.7R^2)\times L

Strength per unit weight of hollow shaft = \frac{\tau _{max}}{W}=\frac{T\times R}{I_{hollow}}\times \frac{1}{\rho \times \pi (R^2-0.7^2)\times L}=\frac{5.16T}{\rho \pi ^2R^5L}

Thus \frac{Strength/Weight _{hollow}}{Strength/Weight _{Solid}}=5.16

3 0
4 years ago
Ronny has a hydraulic jack. The input force is 250 N, while the output force is 7,500 N. If the area of the pipe below the input
Ganezh [65]

Answer:

6 m²

Explanation:

application of fluid pressure according to  Pascal's principle for the two pistons is given as:

P_1=P_2

Where P₁ is the pressure at the input and P₂ is the pressure at the output.

But P₁ = F₁ / A₁ and P₂ = F₂ / A₂

Where F₁ and F₂ are the forces applied at the input and output respectively and A₁ and A₂ are the area of  the input pipe and output pipe respectively

Since, P_1=P_2

\frac{F_1}{A_1} =\frac{F_2}{A_2}\\

But A₁ = 0.2 m², F₁ = 250 N, F₂ = 7500 N. Substituting values to get:

\frac{F_1}{A_1} =\frac{F_2}{A_2}\\\frac{250}{0.2}=\frac{7500}{A_2}\\  A_2=\frac{7500*0.2}{250} = 6m^2

Therefore, the area of the pipe below the load is 6 m²

6 0
3 years ago
Ihjpr2 ywjegnak'evsinawhe2'qwmasnh ngl,;snhy
WITCHER [35]

Answer:

ummm ok?

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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