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Anit [1.1K]
2 years ago
6

How does magnetic compass help to identify directions​

Physics
1 answer:
just olya [345]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

<em>Magnetic</em><em> </em><em>compass</em><em> </em><em>helps</em><em> </em><em>to </em><em>identify</em><em> </em><em>direction</em><em> </em><em>in </em><em>this </em><em>way </em><em>,</em><em> </em><em>this </em><em>compass</em><em> </em><em>work </em><em>because</em><em> </em><em>of </em><em>earth</em><em> </em><em>magnetic</em><em> field</em><em> </em><em>and </em><em>show</em><em> </em><em>us </em><em>direction</em><em> </em>

<em> </em><em> </em><em>hope</em><em> it</em><em> helps</em><em> and</em><em> your</em><em> day</em><em> will</em><em> be</em><em> full</em><em> of</em><em> happiness</em><em>. </em>^_^

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A circular ring with area 4.45 cm2 is carrying a current of 13.5 A. The ring, initially at rest, is immersed in a region of unif
Gwar [14]

Answer:

a) ( 0.0015139 i^ + 0.0020185 j^ + 0.00060556 k^ ) N.m

b) ΔU = -0.000747871 J

c)  w = 47.97 rad / s

Explanation:

Given:-

- The area of the circular ring, A = 4.45 cm^2

- The current carried by circular ring, I = 13.5 Amps

- The magnetic field strength, vec ( B ) = (1.05×10−2T).(12i^+3j^−4k^)

- The magnetic moment initial orientation, vec ( μi ) = μ.(−0.8i^+0.6j^)  

- The magnetic moment final orientation, vec ( μf ) = -μ k^

- The inertia of ring, T = 6.50×10^−7 kg⋅m2

Solution:-

- First we will determine the magnitude of magnetic moment ( μ ) from the following relation:

                    μ = N*I*A

Where,

           N: The number of turns

           I : Current in coil

           A: the cross sectional area of coil

- Use the given values and determine the magnitude ( μ ) for a single coil i.e ( N = 1 ):

                    μ = 1*( 13.5 ) * ( 4.45 / 100^2 )

                    μ = 0.0060075 A-m^2

- From definition the torque on the ring is the determined from cross product of the magnetic moment vec ( μ ) and magnetic field strength vec ( B ). The torque on the ring in initial position:

             vec ( τi ) = vec ( μi ) x vec ( B )

              = 0.0060075*( -0.8 i^ + 0.6 j^ ) x 0.0105*( 12 i^ + 3 j^ -4 k^ )

              = ( -0.004806 i^ + 0.0036045 j^ ) x ( 0.126 i^ + 0.0315 j^ -0.042 k^ )

- Perform cross product:

          \left[\begin{array}{ccc}i&j&k\\-0.004806&0.0036045&0\\0.126&0.0315&-0.042\end{array}\right]  = \left[\begin{array}{ccc}-0.00015139\\-0.00020185\\-0.00060556\end{array}\right] \\\\

- The initial torque ( τi ) is written as follows:

           vec ( τi ) = ( 0.0015139 i^ + 0.0020185 j^ + 0.00060556 k^ )

           

- The magnetic potential energy ( U ) is the dot product of magnetic moment vec ( μ ) and magnetic field strength vec ( B ):

- The initial potential energy stored in the circular ring ( Ui ) is:

          Ui = - vec ( μi ) . vec ( B )

          Ui =- ( -0.004806 i^ + 0.0036045 j^ ) . ( 0.126 i^ + 0.0315 j^ -0.042 k^ )

          Ui = -[( -0.004806*0.126 ) + ( 0.0036045*0.0315 ) + ( 0*-0.042 )]

          Ui = - [(-0.000605556 + 0.00011)]

          Ui = 0.000495556 J

- The final potential energy stored in the circular ring ( Uf ) is determined in the similar manner after the ring is rotated by 90 degrees with a new magnetic moment orientation ( μf ) :

          Uf = - vec ( μf ) . vec ( B )

          Uf = - ( -0.0060075 k^ ) . ( 0.126 i^ + 0.0315 j^ -0.042 k^ )

          Uf = - [( 0*0.126 ) + ( 0*0.0315 ) + ( -0.0060075*-0.042 ) ]

          Uf = -0.000252315 J

- The decrease in magnetic potential energy of the ring is arithmetically determined:

          ΔU = Uf - Ui

          ΔU = -0.000252315 - 0.000495556  

          ΔU = -0.000747871 J

Answer: There was a decrease of ΔU = -0.000747871 J of potential energy stored in the ring.

- We will consider the system to be isolated from any fictitious forces and gravitational effects are negligible on the current carrying ring.

- The conservation of magnetic potential ( U ) energy in the form of Kinetic energy ( Ek ) is valid for the given application:

                Ui + Eki = Uf + Ekf

Where,

             Eki : The initial kinetic energy ( initially at rest ) = 0

             Ekf : The final kinetic energy at second position

- The loss in potential energy stored is due to the conversion of potential energy into rotational kinetic energy of current carrying ring.    

               -ΔU = Ekf

                0.5*T*w^2 = -ΔU

                w^2 = -ΔU*2 / T

Where,

                w: The angular speed at second position

               w = √(0.000747871*2 / 6.50×10^−7)

              w = 47.97 rad / s

6 0
3 years ago
Two people are sitting on playground swings. One is pulled back 4 degrees from the vertical and the other is pulled back 8 degre
lara [203]

Answer:

They will come back at the same time.

Explanation:

The angular velocity equation of ω= \frac{V}{r} where ω is the frequency of the movement, dependent on the angle. But since swings are simple pendulums and their angles of 8 and 4 degrees are small, they will come back to their starting points at the same time.

I hope this answer helps.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You push your couch a distance of 3.9 m across the living room floor with a horizontal force of 220.0 n. the force of friction i
Mrac [35]

The general formula to calculate the work is:

W=Fd \cos \theta

where F is the force, d is the displacement of the couch, and \theta is the angle between the direction of the force and the displacement. Let's apply this formula to the different parts of the problem.


(a) Work done by you: in this case, the force applied is parallel to the displacement of the couch, so \theta=0^{\circ} and \cos \theta=1, therefore the work is just equal to the product between the horizontal force you apply to push the couch and the distance the couch has been moved:

W=Fd=(220.0 N)(3.9 m)=858 J


(b) work done by the frictional force: the frictional force has opposite direction to the displacement, therefore \theta=180^{\circ} and \cos \theta=-1. Therefore, we must include a negative sign when we calculate the work done by the frictional force:

W=-Fd=-(144.0 N)(3.9 m)=-561.6 J


(c) The work done by gravity is zero. In fact, gravity (which points downwards) is perpendicular to the displacement of the couch (which is horizontal), therefore \theta=90^{\circ} and \cos \theta=0: this means

W=0.


(d) Work done by the net force:

The net force is the difference between the horizontal force applied by you and the frictional force:

F=220 N-144 N=76 N

And the net force is in the same direction of the displacement, so \theta=0^{\circ} and \cos \theta=1 and the work done is

W=Fd=(76 N)(3.9 m)=296.4 J


4 0
3 years ago
Why do we use microwaves to communicate berween earth and satellites
nlexa [21]
It’s frequency is high and microwaves can pass through the atmosphere of the Earth.
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If all this energy is added to 50 kg of water (the amount of water in a 165-lb person) at 37 ∘C, what is the final state of the
Reika [66]

Answer:

Vapors

Explanation:

We take into account that all the energy from the lightning has been transformed into steam.

\Delta U = Q -  W\\Q = mC \Delta T\\Q = mL

We calculate the amount of energy required by water to convert into steam.

Q_{water} = 50 \times \times 4180 \times (100-37)\\= 1.132 \times 10^7 \ J

Q_{change\ to\ steam} = 50 \times 2.256 \times 106 \\= 1.128 \times 10^8 \ J

Q_{total} = 1.132 \times 10^7 + 1.128 \times 10^8\\= 1.126 \times 10^8 \ J

From the lightning we received 10^{10} \ J of energy, out of which 1.126 \times 10^8 has been used to convert the water into steam.

Energy left = 10^{10} - 1.126 \times 10^8 = 9.88 \times 10^9 \ J

We use this energy to convert steam into vapors.

Q = \Delta E

Q = \Delta E = mc (T_{f} - T{i})\\T_{f} = \frac {\Delta E}{mc} + T_{i}\\ \\T_{f} = 100 + \frac{9.88 \times 10^{10}}{50 \times 1970}\\T_{f} = 100 + 10^8\\T_{f} = 10 ^{ \ 8} \ {^ \circ } C

With this temperature, we can easily interpret that the vapors will be dissociated in hydrogen and oxygen particles.

5 0
3 years ago
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