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Elis [28]
3 years ago
13

A girl pulls on a 10 kg wagon with a constant force of 20 N. What is the wagon’s acceleration

Physics
1 answer:
andreev551 [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

2

Explanation:

İf system ideal ( no frictional force )

Fnet=m.a

20=10.a

a=2m/s2

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How do I do these? My teacher didn’t show us how.
melisa1 [442]

Explanation:

Displacement is simply the change in position.  So in the first part of problem 1, looking at the graph between 0 s and 2 s, the position changes from 0 m to -4 m.  So the displacement is:

Δx =  -4 m − 0 m

Δx = -4 m

Between 2 s and 4 s, the position stays at -4 m.  The displacement is:

Δx = -4 m − (-4 m)

Δx = 0 m

Finally, between 4 s and 6 s, the position goes from -4 m to 6 m.  The displacement is:

Δx = 6 m − (-4 m)

Δx = 10 m

The net displacement is the change in position from 0 s to 6 s:

Δx = 6 m − 0 m

Δx = 6 m

In the second part of problem 1, we have a velocity vs time graph.

Car 1 starts with 0 velocity and ends with a velocity of 6 m/s, so it is accelerating and constantly moving to the right.

Car 2 starts with a velocity of -6 m/s and ends with a velocity of 6 m/s.  It is also accelerating, but first it is moving to the left, comes to a stop at t = 3 s, then moves to the right.

Car 3 starts with a velocity of 2 m/s and ends with a velocity of 2 m/s.  So it is moving constantly to the right, but never speeds up or slows down.

We want to know when two of the cars meet.  Unfortunately, this isn't as easy as looking for where the lines cross on the graph.  We need to calculate their displacements.  We can do this by finding the area under the graph (assuming all the cars start from the same point).

Let's start with Car 2.  Half of the area is below the x-axis, and half is above.  Without doing calculations, we can say the total displacement for this car is 0.  This means it ends back up where it started, and that it never meets either of the other cars, both of which have positive displacements.

So we know Car 1 and Car 3 meet, we just have to find where and when.  For Car 1, the area under the curve is a triangle.  So its displacement is:

Δx = ½ t v(t)

where t is the time and v(t) is the velocity of Car 1 at that time.  Since the line has a slope of 1 and y intercept of 0, we know v(t) = t.  So:

Δx = ½ t²

Now look at Car 3.  The area under the curve is a rectangle.  So its displacement is:

Δx = 2t

When the two cars have the same displacement:

½ t² = 2t

t² = 4t

t² − 4t = 0

t (t − 4) = 0

t = 0, 4

t = 0 refers to the time when both cars are at the starting point, so t = 4 is the answer we're looking for.  Where are the cars at this time?  Simply plug in t = 4 into either of the equations we found:

Δx = 8

So Cars 1 and 3 meet at 4 s and 8 m.

7 0
3 years ago
f your risk-aversion coefficient is A = 4 and you believe that the entire 1926–2015 period is representative of future expected
siniylev [52]

Answer:

The portfolio should invest 48.94% in equity while 51.05% in the T-bills.

Explanation:

As the complete question is not given here ,the table of data is missing which is as attached herewith.

From the maximized equation of the utility function it is evident that

Weight=\frac{E_M-r_f}{A\sigma_M^2}

For the equity, here as

  • Weight is percentage of the equity which is to be calculated
  • {E_M-r_f} is the Risk premium whose value as seen from the attached data for the period 1926-2015 is 8.30%
  • A is the risk aversion factor which is given as 4.
  • \sigma_M is the standard deviation of the portfolio which from the data for the period 1926-2015 is 20.59

By substituting values.

Weight=\frac{E_M-r_f}{A\sigma_M^2}\\Weight=\frac{8.30\%}{4(20.59\%)^2}\\Weight=0.4894 =48.94\%

So the weight of equity is 48.94%.

Now the weight of T bills is given as

Weight_{T-Bills}=1-Weight_{equity}\\Weight_{T-Bills}=1-0.4894\\Weight_{T-Bills}=0.5105=51.05\%\\

So  the weight of T-bills is 51.05%.

The portfolio should invest 48.94% in equity while 51.05% in the T-bills.

7 0
3 years ago
How to atoms behave in non-magnetic items?
Anastaziya [24]

Answer:

By altering the quantum interactions of the electrons in the atoms of a metal's atoms, scientists from the University of Leeds have generated magnetism in metals that aren’t normally magnetic.

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
How rolling friction is less than sliding friction?
vovangra [49]

Rolling friction is considerably less than sliding friction as there is no work done against the body that is rolling by the force of friction. For a body to start rolling a small amount of friction is required at the point where it rests on the other surface, else it would slide instead of roll.

6 0
3 years ago
What is the value of the activation energy of the uncatalyzed reaction in reverse?
alexgriva [62]
It would be: Activation Energy = 300 KJ

Hope this helps!
5 0
3 years ago
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