Answer:
Mass of Jupiter = 4.173×10^15kg
Explanation:
Using Kepler's 3rd law, it states that the orbital period T is related to the distance,r as:
T^2 = GM/4 pi × r^3
Where G = universal gravitational constant
r = radius
M = masd of jupiter
Rearranging the formular to make M the subject of formular
T^2 × 4 pi = G M × r^3
(T^2 × 4 pi) / (G× r^3) = M
(1.24^2 × 4 × 3.142) /(6.672×10^-11)(4.11×10^8)^3
M = 19.32 /6.672×10^-11)(4.11×10^8)^3
M = 19.32 / 4.63 ×10^15
M = 4.173×10^15kg
The calculated coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.33125.'
The rate of kinetic friction the friction force to normal force ratio experienced by a body moving on a dry, uneven surface is known as k. The friction coefficient is the ratio of the normal force pressing two surfaces together to the frictional force preventing motion between them. Typically, it is represented by the Greek letter mu (). In terms of math, is equal to F/N, where F stands for frictional force and N for normal force.
given mass of the block=10 kg
spring constant k= 2250 Nm
now according to principal of conservation of energy we observe,
the energy possessed by the block initially is reduced by the friction between the points B and C and rest is used up in work done by the spring.
mgh= μ (mgl) +1/2 kx²
10 x 10 x 3= μ(600) +(1125) (0.09)
μ(600) =300 - 101.25
μ = 198.75÷600
μ =0.33125
The complete question is- A 10.0−kg block is released from rest at point A in Fig The track is frictionless except for the portion between point B and C, which has a length of 6.00m the block travels down the track, hits a spring of force constant 2250N/m, and compresses the spring 0.300m form its equilibrium position before coming to rest momentarily. Determine the coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the rough surface between point Band (C)
Learn more about kinetic friction here-
brainly.com/question/13754413
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A force of 660 n stretches a certain spring a distance of 0.300 m. what is the potential energy of the spring when a 70.0 kg mass hangs vertically from it?
Answer:
We know that 1 meter = 100 centimeters, and 1 foot = 12 inches.
So (1,609 meters) x (100 centimeters/meter) = (5,280 feet) x (12 inches/foot)
The second fraction on each side of the equation is equal to ' 1 ', because
the numerator is equal to the denominator, so sticking it in there doesn't
change the value of that side of the equation. But now we can cancel some
units,and wind up with the units we need.
(1,609 meters) x (100 centimeters/meter) = (5,280 feet) x (12 inches/foot)
(1,609 x100) centimeters = (5,280 x 12) inches
160,900 centimeters = 63,360 inches
Divide each side by 63,360 : 2.54 centimeters = 1 inch
Explanation:
After the great 1906 San Francisco earthquake, geolophysicistHarry Fielding Reid examined the displacement of the ground surface along the San Andreas Fault. He concluded that the quake must have been the result of the elastic reboundof the strain energy in the rocks on either side of the fault.
strain energy is 0. 5x force x (compression) X (compression)
There is a lot of force and a bit of compression when rocks squash up against other rocks causing earthquakes
