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Margarita [4]
3 years ago
9

"A comet is not actually a star". Give two reasons in favour of this statement.​

Physics
2 answers:
SVETLANKA909090 [29]3 years ago
6 0
The answer will be a cookie and a dog hhthrhrhrhdhyxyxyxyx
Tresset [83]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

1 it doesn't have its own light

2 comet revolves around the sun and stars don't

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Assume that the stopping distance of a van varies directly with the square of the speed. A van traveling 40 miles per hour can s
Daniel [21]

Answer:

d = 100.8 ft

Explanation:

As we know that initial speed of the van is 40 miles then the stopping distance is given as 70 feet

here we know that

v_f^2 - v_i^2 = 2 ad

so here we have

0^2 - 40^2 = 2 a (70 feet)

now again if the speed is increased to 48 mph then let say the stopping distance is "d"

so we will have

0^2 - 48^2 = 2 a (d)

now divide the above two equations

\frac{40^2}{48^2} = \frac{70 feet}{d}

d = 100.8 ft

4 0
3 years ago
What is the direction of the normal contact force of the road on the wheels?
Gekata [30.6K]

Answer:

The direction of the contact forces acting on a body is not necessarily perpendicular to the contact surface. The resolution of contact forces in two components i.e. perpendicular to contact surface and along surface. Perpendicular component is normal force and parallel component is friction.

Explanation:

3 0
2 years ago
PLEASE HELP SOON
Kitty [74]

Answer:you in connections too?

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Assume that a pendulum used to drive a grandfather clock has a length L0=1.00m and a mass M at temperature T=20.00°C. It can be
Sedaia [141]

Answer:

The period will change a 0,036 % relative to its initial state

Explanation:

When the rod expands by heat its moment of inertia increases, but since there was no applied rotational force to the pendulum , the angular momentum remains constant. In other words:

ζ= Δ(Iω)/Δt, where ζ is the applied torque, I is moment of inertia, ω is angular velocity and t is time.

since there was no torque ( no rotational force applied)

ζ=0 → Δ(Iω)=0 → I₂ω₂ -I₁ω₁ = 0 → I₁ω₁ = I₂ω₂

thus

I₂/I₁ =ω₁/ω₂ , (2) represents final state and (1) initial state

we know also that ω=2π/T , where T is the period of the pendulum

I₂/I₁ =ω₁/ω₂ = (2π/T₁)/(2π/T₂)= T₂/T₁

Therefore to calculate the change in the period we have to calculate the moments of inertia. Looking at tables, can be found that the moment of inertia of a rod that rotates around an end is

I = 1/3 ML²

Therefore since the mass M is the same before and after the expansion

I₁ = 1/3 ML₁² , I₂ = 1/3 ML₂²  → I₂/I₁ = (1/3 ML₂²)/(1/3 ML₁²)= L₂²/L₁²= (L₂/L₁)²

since

L₂= L₁ (1+αΔT) , L₂/L₁=1+αΔT  , where ΔT is the change in temperature

now putting all together

T₂/T₁=I₂/I₁=(L₂/L₁)² = (1+αΔT) ²

finally

%change in period =(T₂-T₁)/T₁ = T₂/T₁ - 1 = (1+αΔT) ² -1

%change in period =(1+αΔT) ² -1 =[ 1+18×10⁻⁶ °C⁻¹ *10 °C]² -1 = 3,6 ×10⁻⁴ = 3,6 ×10⁻² %  = 0,036 %

4 0
3 years ago
Use the fact that 1inch=2.54cm and convert 52 inches into the equivalent length in centimeters.
Lelu [443]

Answer:

To convert inches to centimeters, use an easy formula and multiply the length by the conversion ratio.

Since one inch is equal to 2.54 centimeters, this is the inches to cm formula to conver

Explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
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