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Marianna [84]
3 years ago
7

What are some uses of the electromagnetic

Physics
1 answer:
den301095 [7]3 years ago
8 0
If you mean electromagnetic waves
Radio waves can be used well in radio signals
Infrared in remote controls
X rays for x-rays
Gamma rays in a nuclear power plant
Uv rays can cause cancer but they transmit vitamin D
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Two 6 ohm resistors in parallel gives an equivalent resistance of
Mashcka [7]

Answer:

3 ohms

Explanation:

6×6/6+6 =3 .............

3 0
3 years ago
In a closed system, a cart with a mass of 1.5 kg is rolling to the right at 1.4 m/s, while another cart of mass 1.0 kg is rollin
bija089 [108]

Answer: The correct option is (c.).

Explanation:

Mass of the cart A= 1.5 kg

Velocity of Cart A = 1.4 m/s towards right

Mass of the cart B = 1.0 kg

Velocity of Cart B = 1.4 m/s towards left

Momentum (P)= Mass × Velocity

P_A=1.5 kg\times 1.4 m/s=2.1 kg m/s

P_B=1.0 kg\times (-1.4m/s)=-1.4 kg m/s

(Negative sign means velocity of the cart is in opposite direction of that of the cart A)

Total Momentum =P_A+P_B=2.10 kg m/s-1.40 kg m/s=0.70 kg m/s

Hence, the correct option is (c.).

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Help and explain thanks
ludmilkaskok [199]

Answer:

the faster an object moves the more kinetic it has. the more mass an object has, the more kinetic energy it has.

4 0
2 years ago
Find the Maclaurin series for f(x) using the definition of a Maclaurin series. [Assume that f has a power series expansion. Do n
jenyasd209 [6]

The statement about pointwise convergence follows because C is a complete metric space. If fn → f uniformly on S, then |fn(z) − fm(z)| ≤ |fn(z) − f(z)| + |f(z) − fm(z)|, hence {fn} is uniformly Cauchy. Conversely, if {fn} is uniformly Cauchy, it is pointwise Cauchy and therefore converges pointwise to a limit function f. If |fn(z)−fm(z)| ≤ ε for all n,m ≥ N and all z ∈ S, let m → ∞ to show that |fn(z)−f(z)|≤εforn≥N andallz∈S. Thusfn →f uniformlyonS.

2. This is immediate from (2.2.7).

3. We have f′(x) = (2/x3)e−1/x2 for x ̸= 0, and f′(0) = limh→0(1/h)e−1/h2 = 0. Since f(n)(x) is of the form pn(1/x)e−1/x2 for x ̸= 0, where pn is a polynomial, an induction argument shows that f(n)(0) = 0 for all n. If g is analytic on D(0,r) and g = f on (−r,r), then by (2.2.16), g(z) =

3 0
3 years ago
A change in which property of light will have no effect on whether or not the photoelectric effect occurs??? Frequently energy i
MaRussiya [10]
The intensity of the light has no connection with the photoelectric effect.

That's what was so baffling about it before the particle nature of light
was suspected ... a match with a blue flame might stimulate the
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5 0
3 years ago
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