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77julia77 [94]
2 years ago
11

Amount of pressure of liquid increases with ?​

Physics
2 answers:
Dima020 [189]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

depths cause it help it with a lot and that it the answer

Pachacha [2.7K]2 years ago
3 0

Answer: Pressure increases as the depth increases.

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1. A Faraday ice pail similar to the one you will use in the experiment is used in this question. The principle of its operation
algol [13]

Answer:

your mommy

Explanation:

YOUR MAMMA

YOUR MAMMA

I LOVE MY DADDY

HE DOES ME REAL HARD

8 0
3 years ago
An object is 39 cm away from a concave mirrors surface along the principles axis. If the mirrors focal length is 9.50 cm, how fa
Tatiana [17]

Answer:

12.6 cm

Explanation:

We can use the mirror equation to find the distance of the image from the mirror:

\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{p}+\frac{1}{q}

where here we have

f = 9.50 cm is the focal length

p = 39 cm is the distance of the object from the mirror

Solving the equation for q, we find:

\frac{1}{q}=\frac{1}{f}-\frac{1}{p}=\frac{1}{9.50 cm}-\frac{1}{39 cm}=0.080 cm^{-1}\\q = \frac{1}{0.080 cm}=12.6 cm

5 0
3 years ago
Please help, I do not understand
Anettt [7]
I think the key here is to be exquisitely careful at all times, and
any time we make any move, keep our units with it.

We're given two angular speeds, and we need to solve for a time.

Outer (slower) planet:
Angular speed =  ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/ω seconds .

Inner (faster) planet:
Angular speed =  2ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/2ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/2ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/2ω sec = π/ω seconds.

So far so good.  We have the outer planet taking 2π/ω seconds for one
complete revolution, and the inner planet doing it in only π/ω seconds ...
half the time for double the angular speed.  Perfect !

At this point, I know what I'm thinking, but it's hard to explain.
I'm pretty sure that the planets are in line on the same side whenever the
total elapsed time is something like a common multiple of their periods.
What I mean is:

They're in line, SOMEwhere on the circles, when

     (a fraction of one orbit) = (the same fraction of the other orbit)    
AND
     the total elapsed time is a common multiple of their periods.

Wait !  Ignore all of that.  I'm doing a good job of confusing myself, and
probably you too.  It may be simpler than that.  (I hope so.)  Throw away
those last few paragraphs.

The planets are in line again as soon as the faster one has 'lapped'
the slower one ... gone around one more time.  
So, however many of the longer period have passed, ONE MORE
of the shorter period have passed.  We're just looking for the Least
Common Multiple of the two periods.

      K (2π/ω seconds)  =  (K+1) (π/ω seconds)

                     2Kπ/ω   =    Kπ/ω + π/ω

Subtract  Kπ/ω :    Kπ/ω = π/ω

Multiply by  ω/π :      K  =  1

(Now I have a feeling that I have just finished re-inventing the wheel.)

And there we have it:

     In the time it takes the slower planet to revolve once,
     the faster planet revolves twice, and catches up with it.
    
     It will be  2π/ω  seconds before the planets line up again.
    
     When they do, they are again in the same position as shown
     in the drawing.

To describe it another way . . . 

     When Kanye has completed its first revolution ...

     Bieber has made it halfway around.

     Bieber is crawling the rest of the way to the starting point while ...

     Kanye is doing another complete revolution.

     Kanye laps Bieber just as they both reach the starting point ...

     Bieber for the first time, Kanye for the second time.


You're welcome.  The generous bounty of 5 points is very gracious,
and is appreciated.  The warm cloudy water and green breadcrust
are also delicious.
5 0
2 years ago
What phase difference between two identical traveling waves, moving in the same direction along a stretched string, results in t
Tom [10]

Answer:

Explanation:

Let the amplitude of individual wave be I and resultant amplitude be 1.703 I . Let the phase difference be Ф in terms of degree

From the formula of resultant vector

(1.703I)² = I² + I² +  2 I² cosФ

2.9 I² = 2I² + 2 I² cosФ

.9I² = 2 I² cosФ

cosФ = .9 / 2

= .45

Ф = 63.25 .

5 0
3 years ago
Give me four reasons pluto is a cool planet / dwarf planet
AleksandrR [38]

Answer:

1. Just because it is small doesn't mean it needs to be excluded. If that were the case I would've been out of my friend group a while ago

2. Look at it it's fricking beautiful (see attachment)

3. It is just a great planet I don't think there needs to be any reason given I meannn you agree?

4. There's no other reason needed it's fricking gorgeous and amazing it needs no other reason. It needs a freaking

opening announcement to announce the arrival of the gorgeouness.

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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