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butalik [34]
2 years ago
8

I WILL MARK BRAINLIEST!!ASAP!!! Wet Lab - Coulomb's Law lab from edge!!

Physics
1 answer:
jarptica [38.1K]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Coulomb's law states that the force between two charged objects varies  Explanation:

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A solid sphere, a solid disk, and a thin hoop are all released from rest at the top of the incline (h0 = 20.0 cm).
Ede4ka [16]

Answer:

a. The object with the smallest rotational inertia, the thin hoop

b. The object with the smallest rotational inertia, the thin hoop

c.  The rotational speed of the sphere is 55.8 rad/s and Its translational speed is 1.67 m/s

Explanation:

a. Without doing any calculations, decide which object would be spinning the fastest when it gets to the bottom. Explain.

Since the thin has the smallest rotational inertia. This is because, since kinetic energy of a rotating object K = 1/2Iω² where I = rotational inertia and ω = angular speed.

ω = √2K/I

ω ∝ 1/√I

since their kinetic energy is the same, so, the thin hoop which has the smallest rotational inertia spins fastest at the bottom.

b. Again, without doing any calculations, decide which object would get to the bottom first.

Since the acceleration of a rolling object a = gsinФ/(1 + I/MR²), and all three objects have the same kinetic energy, the object with the smallest rotational inertia has the largest acceleration.

This is because a ∝ 1/(1 + I/MR²) and the object with the smallest rotational inertia  has the smallest ratio for I/MR² and conversely small 1 + I/MR² and thus largest acceleration.

So, the object with the smallest rotational inertia gets to the bottom first.

c. Assuming all objects are rolling without slipping, have a mass of 2.00 kg and a radius of 3.00 cm, find the rotational and translational speed at the bottom of the incline of any one of these three objects.

We know the kinetic energy of a rolling object K = 1/2Iω²  + 1/2mv² where I = rotational inertia and ω = angular speed, m = mass and v = velocity of center of mass = rω where r = radius of object

The kinetic energy K = potential energy lost = mgh where h = 20.0 cm = 0.20 m and g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s²

So, mgh =  1/2Iω²  + 1/2mv² =  1/2Iω²  + 1/2mr²ω²

Let I = moment of inertia of sphere = 2mr²/5 where r = radius of sphere = 3.00 cm = 0.03 m and m = mass of sphere = 2.00 kg

So, mgh = 1/2Iω²  + 1/2mr²ω²

mgh = 1/2(2mr²/5 )ω²  + 1/2mr²ω²

mgh = mr²ω²/5  + 1/2mr²ω²

mgh = 7mr²ω²/10

gh = 7r²ω²/10

ω² = 10gh/7r²

ω = √(10gh/7) ÷ r

substituting the values of the variables, we have

ω = √(10 × 9.8 m/s² × 0.20 m/7) ÷ 0.03 m

= 1.673 m/s ÷ 0.03 m

= 55.77 rad/s

≅ 55.8 rad/s

So, its rotational speed is 55.8 rad/s

Its translational speed v = rω

= 0.03 m × 55.8 rad/s

= 1.67 m/s

So, its rotational speed is of the sphere is 55.8 rad/s and Its translational speed is 1.67 m/s

6 0
2 years ago
Point charges q1 and q2 are separated by a distance of 60 cm along a horizontal axis.
amm1812

Answer:

38 cm from q1(right)

Explanation:

Given, q1 = 3q2 , r = 60cm = 0.6 m

Let that point be situated at a distance of 'x' m from q1.

Electric field must be same from both sides to be in equilibrium(where EF is 0).

=> k q1/x² = k q2/(0.6 - x)²

=> q1(0.6 - x)² = q2(x)²

=> 3q2(0.6 - x)² = q2(x)²

=> 3(0.6 - x)² = x²

=> √3(0.6 - x) = ± x

=> 0.6√3 = x(1 + √3)

=> 1.03/2.73 = x

≈ 0.38 m = 38 cm = x

8 0
3 years ago
Does mechanical advantage have units? Explain your answer.
motikmotik

Answer:

The mechanical advantage of a machine is the ratio of the load (the resistance overcome by a machine) to the effort (the force applied). For an ideal (without friction) mechanism, it is also equal to: There is no unit for mechanical advantages since the unit for both input and output forces cancel out.

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is it plz help me!!
Darina [25.2K]

Answer:

second one

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Ir
NemiM [27]

Answer:

what is your question because I seem to not see a question in this question....

3 0
2 years ago
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