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NISA [10]
3 years ago
14

A 120 g, 8.0-cm-diameter gyroscope is spun at 1000 rpm and allowed to precess. What is the precession period?

Physics
1 answer:
dolphi86 [110]3 years ago
7 0

To solve this problem we will derive the expression of the precession period from the moment of inertia of the given object. We will convert the units that are not in SI, and finally we will find the precession period with the variables found. Let's start defining the moment of inertia.

I = MR^2

Here,

M = Mass

R = Radius of the hoop

The precession frequency is given as

\Omega = \frac{Mgd}{I\omega}

Here,

M = Mass

g= Acceleration due to gravity

d = Distance of center of mass from pivot

I = Moment of inertia

\omega= Angular velocity

Replacing the value for moment of inertia

\Omega= \frac{MgR}{MR^2 \omega}

\Omega = \frac{g}{R\omega}

The value for our angular velocity is not in SI, then

\omega = 1000rpm (\frac{2\pi rad}{1 rev})(\frac{1min}{60s})

\omega = 104.7rad/s

Replacing our values we have that

\Omega = \frac{9.8m/s^2}{(8*10^{-2}m)(104.7rad)}

\Omega = 1.17rad/s

The precession frequency is

\Omega = \frac{2\pi rad}{T}

T = \frac{2\pi rad}{\Omega}

T = \frac{2\pi}{1.17}

T = 5.4 s

Therefore the precession period is 5.4s

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Explanation:

This should be of help:

An atom is made up of three subatomic particles:

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A neutral atom is an atom that has not lost or gained any amount of electrons.

In a neutral atom;

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 Usually atoms are designated this way:

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Use this guide to solve the problem

Learn more:

Atomic number brainly.com/question/5425825

#learnwithBrainly

8 0
4 years ago
Suppose you run into a wall at 4.5 meters per second (about 10 mph). Let's say the wall brings you to a complete stop in 0.5 sec
STatiana [176]

Answer with Explanation:

We are given that

Initial velocity,u=4.5 m/s

Time=t =0.5 s

Final velocity=v=0m/s

We have to find the deceleration and estimate the force exerted by wall on you.

We know that

Acceleration=\frac{v-u}{t}

Using the formula

Acceleration=a=\frac{0-4.5}{0.5}

deceleration=a=-9m/s^2

We know that

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Using the formula and suppose mass  of my body=m=40 kg

The force exerted by wall on you

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A strip of copper 190 µm thick and 4.20 mm wide is placed in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude B = 0.78 T, that is perpendic
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Answer:

V = 9.682 × 10^(-6) V

Explanation:

Given data

thick = 190 µm

wide = 4.20 mm

magnitude B = 0.78 T

current  i = 32 A

to find out

Calculate V

solution

we know v formula that is

V = magnitude× current / (no of charge carriers ×thickness × e

here we know that number of charge carriers/unit volume for copper = 8.47 x 10^28 electrons/m³

so put all value we get

V = magnitude× current / (no of charge carriers ×thickness × e

V = 0.78 × 32 / (8.47 x 10^28  × 190 × 1.602 x 10^(-19)

V = 9.682 × 10^(-6) V

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