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NISA [10]
2 years ago
14

A 120 g, 8.0-cm-diameter gyroscope is spun at 1000 rpm and allowed to precess. What is the precession period?

Physics
1 answer:
dolphi86 [110]2 years ago
7 0

To solve this problem we will derive the expression of the precession period from the moment of inertia of the given object. We will convert the units that are not in SI, and finally we will find the precession period with the variables found. Let's start defining the moment of inertia.

I = MR^2

Here,

M = Mass

R = Radius of the hoop

The precession frequency is given as

\Omega = \frac{Mgd}{I\omega}

Here,

M = Mass

g= Acceleration due to gravity

d = Distance of center of mass from pivot

I = Moment of inertia

\omega= Angular velocity

Replacing the value for moment of inertia

\Omega= \frac{MgR}{MR^2 \omega}

\Omega = \frac{g}{R\omega}

The value for our angular velocity is not in SI, then

\omega = 1000rpm (\frac{2\pi rad}{1 rev})(\frac{1min}{60s})

\omega = 104.7rad/s

Replacing our values we have that

\Omega = \frac{9.8m/s^2}{(8*10^{-2}m)(104.7rad)}

\Omega = 1.17rad/s

The precession frequency is

\Omega = \frac{2\pi rad}{T}

T = \frac{2\pi rad}{\Omega}

T = \frac{2\pi}{1.17}

T = 5.4 s

Therefore the precession period is 5.4s

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Wavelength of blue photons 495 nm, what is the frequency? and what is the energy?
inessss [21]

Answer:

1.F: About 6*10^14 Hz

2.E: About 4*10^ -19 J

Explanation:

Frequency: We knew that the speed of a wave is its wavelength(λ)* frequency(f, in Hz).  By the wave-particle duality we know we can calculate the frequency of light in the same way. So, c=495nm *f, f=c/495nm=> (299,792,458 m/s) / (4.95*10^-7 m)

=6.05*10^14 /s

Energy: The energy photon contains can be calculate by this formula-- E=hf

f is the frequency and h is Planck's constant which is about 6.62 ×10^-34 *m^2*kg/s (after dimensional analysis ) =6.62*10^ -34 J*s.

So, the energy of a blue photon is (6.05*10^14)*(6.62*10^-34)=40.051*10^-20=  4.051*10^-19 J

3 0
3 years ago
(Plzzzz help!!!) (50 points!!!)
stellarik [79]

Answer:

Write the following Quantitiesin scientific notation.

a. 10130 Pa to 2 decimal place

b. 978.15m * s-2 to one decimal place

c 0.000001256 A to3 decimal place​

Add your answer and earn points.

Answer

5.0/5

2

kobenhavn

Expert

5.5K answers

43M people helped

Answer: a.

b.  

c.  

Explanation:

Scientific notation is defined as the representation of expressing the numbers that are too big or too small and are represented in the decimal form with one digit before the decimal point times 10 raise to the power.

For example : 5000 is written as

a. 10130 Pa to 2 decimal place is written as

b.  to 1 decimal place is written as

c.   to 3 decimal places is written as

Explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A wheel, starting from rest, rotates with a constant angular acceleration of 1.80 rad/s^2. During a certain 7.00 s interval, it
lora16 [44]

Answer:

a) 1.3 rad/s

b) 0.722 s

Explanation:

Given

Initial velocity, ω = 0 rad/s

Angular acceleration of the wheel, α = 1.8 rad/s²

using equations of angular motion, we have

θ2 - θ1 = ω(0)[t2 - t1] + 1/2α(t2 - t1)²

where

θ2 - θ1 = 53.2 rad

t2 - t1 = 7s

substituting these in the equation, we have

θ2 - θ1 = ω(0)[t2 - t1] + 1/2α(t2 - t1)²

53.2 =ω(0) * 7 + 1/2 * 1.8 * 7²

53.2 = 7.ω(0) + 1/2 * 1.8 * 49

53.2 = 7.ω(0) + 44.1

7.ω(0) = 53.2 - 44.1

ω(0) = 9.1 / 7

ω(0) = 1.3 rad/s

Using another of the equations of angular motion, we have

ω(0) = ω(i) + α*t1

1.3 = 0 + 1.8 * t1

1.3 = 1.8 * t1

t1 = 1.3/1.8

t1 = 0.722 s

5 0
3 years ago
Two forces act on a 6.00-kg object. One of the forces is 10.0 N. If the object accelerates at 2.00 m/s2
liubo4ka [24]

Given :

Two forces act on a 6.00-kg object. One of the forces is 10.0 N.

Acceleration of object 2 m/s².

To Find :

The greatest possible magnitude of the other force.\

Solution :

Let, other force is f.

So, net force, F = 10 + f.

Now, acceleration is given by :

a=\dfrac{F}{mass}\\\\a= \dfrac{10+f}{6}\\\\\dfrac{10+f}{6}=2\\\\f = 12 - 10\\\\f = 2 \ N

Therefore, the greatest possible magnitude of the other force is 2 N.

Hence, this is the required solution.

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2 years ago
What are two reasons why a home computer scanner requires
alexandr1967 [171]

Answer: C and D

Explanation: a p e x

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