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Hunter-Best [27]
3 years ago
7

Which object will have greater acceleration? Why?​

Physics
1 answer:
dexar [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Object D

Explanation:

Use Newton's Second Law to determine the acceleration that each object has.

  • F = ma

The force applied in both cases is 50 N, but the mass for object C and object D is different.

Let's start with object C first:

  • F = ma
  • 50 N = 10 kg · a
  • 50 = 10a
  • 5 = a

The acceleration object C undergoes is 5 m/s².  

Now let's calculate object D next:

  • F = ma
  • 50 N = 2 kg * a
  • 50 = 2a
  • 25 = a

The acceleration object D undergoes is 25 m/s².

Object D has greater acceleration because it has a smaller mass. The object with a smaller mass will accelerate more in order to satisfy Newton's 2nd Law.

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Explain why does the bowling ball decelerate as it travels along the lane
frutty [35]

The main cause of this is Friction. The more oil that is laid down, the less friction there is between the ball and the lane surface. The less friction, the harder it is for the bowler to send the ball in a curved path imparted by the spin that the bowler puts on the ball at the instant of release.

5 0
3 years ago
On a snowy day, max (mass = 15 kg) pulls his little sister maya in a sled (combined mass = 20 kg) through the slippery snow. max
sesenic [268]

Work done by a given force is given by

W = F.d

here on sled two forces will do work

1. Applied force by Max

2. Frictional force due to ground

Now by force diagram of sled we can see the angle of force and displacement

work done by Max = W_1 = Fdcos\theta

W_1 = 12*5cos15

W_1 = 57.96 J

Now similarly work done by frictional force

W_2 = Fdcos\theta

W_2 = 4*5cos180

W_2= -20 J

Now total work done on sled

W_{net}= W_1 + W2

W_{net} = 57.96 - 20 = 37.96 J

7 0
3 years ago
Pls help for brainliest:)
Rasek [7]

Answer:

<h2>C. </h2>

Explanation:

<h3>#CARRY ON LEARNING</h3><h3>#MARK ON LEARNING</h3><h3>#HELPING HAND</h3>
6 0
2 years ago
Needddd helppppppp!!!
yulyashka [42]

Answer:

2/9 times as strong.

Explanation:

From the question given above, the following assumptions were made:

Initial mass of 1st planet (M₁ ) = M

Initial mass of 2nd planet (m₁ ) = m

Initial distance apart (r₁) = r

Initial Force of attraction (F₁) = F

Final mass of 1st planet (M₂) = 2M

Final mass of 1st planet (m₂) = constant = m

Final distance apart (r₂) = 3r

Final force of attraction (F₂) =?

Next, we shall obtain an expression to determine the new force. This can be obtained as follow:

F = GMm / r²

Cross multiply

Fr² = GMm

Divide both side by Mn

G = Fr² / Mm

Since G is constant, then we have

F₁r₁² / M₁m₁ = F₂r₂² / M₂m₂

Finally, we shall determine the new force as follow:

Initial mass of 1st planet (M₁ ) = M

Initial mass of 2nd planet (m₁ ) = m

Initial distance apart (r₁) = r

Initial Force of attraction (F₁) = F

Final mass of 1st planet (M₂) = 2M

Final mass of 1st planet (m₂) = constant = m

Final distance apart (r₂) = 3r

Final force of attraction (F₂) =?

F₁r₁² / M₁m₁ = F₂r₂² / M₂m₂

Fr² / Mm = F₂ × (3r)² / 2M × m

Fr² / Mm = F₂ × 9r² / 2Mm

Cross multiply

Fr² × 2Mm = F₂ × 9r² × Mm

Divide both side by 9r² × Mm

F₂ = Fr² × 2Mm / 9r² × Mm

F₂ = F × 2 / 9

F₂ = 2/9 F

Thus, the new force is 2/9 times the original force i.e 2/9 times as strong.

4 0
3 years ago
A student says that a speed of 50 m/s is faster than a speed of 140 km/h because the number is bigger. What would you say to the
ladessa [460]

The units are not consistent - 1 m/s is not the same as 1 km/h.

First thing to do would be to convert from one unit of speed to the other, say km/h to m/s. There are 1000 meters (m) for every kilometer (km) and 3600 seconds (s) for every hour (h), so

1\,\dfrac{\mathrm{km}}{\mathrm h}\cdot\dfrac{10^3\,\mathrm m}{\mathrm{km}}\cdot\dfrac{\mathrm h}{3600\,\mathrm s}\approx0.278\,\dfrac{\mathrm m}{\mathrm s}

So in fact 1 km/h is about 4 times slower than 1 m/s.

4 0
3 years ago
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