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forsale [732]
3 years ago
12

Convert 6.75 atm to torr Hg (using dimensional analysis method)

Chemistry
1 answer:
Naily [24]3 years ago
5 0
Well, torr and Hg are different units, but they have the same conversiton with atm.  

The conversion for atm to torr or mmHg is 1 atm = 760 torr = 760 mmHg.

Because you have 6.75 atm you can find both the torr and mmHg.

To use dimensional analysis just make sure that you cancel out your units as you go.

6.75 atm * (760 torr / 1 atm) = 5130 torr or 5.13 x 10 to the -3 torr with significant figures.  

I hope this helped. 
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Answer:

            Atoms are composed of a central nucleus which is surrounded by orbiting <u>Electrons</u>.

Explanation:

                   The word Atom is derived from atomos meaning indivisible particle. An atom is a very small sized particle and its size is approximately 100 picometers.

                    Atoms are composed of a Nucleus which contains protons and neutrons and the nucleus is surrounded by orbiting electrons. Also, the nucleus is positively charged due to +ve protons and the electrons revolving around nucleus are -vely charged making overall atom neutral in nature.

                   Atoms react with another atoms due to the presence of valence electrons present in the valence shell of an atom. The valence electrons would make a covalent bond by mutually sharing the electrons or it may form an ionic bond by gaining and loosing valence electron.

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3 years ago
In the article "A Sea of Garbage" what message is each cartoon trying to convey to readers? Do they succeed?
sertanlavr [38]

Answer:

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What is the total probability of finding a particle in a one-dimensional box in level n = 4 between x = 0 and x = L/8?
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Answer:

P = 1/8

Explanation:

The wave function of a particle in a one-dimensional box is given by:

\psi = \sqrt \frac{2}{L} sin(\frac{n \pi x}{L})

Hence, the probability of finding the particle in the  one-dimensional box is:

P = \int_{x_{1}}^{x_{2}} \psi^{2} dx

P = \int_{x_{1}}^{x_{2}} (\sqrt \frac{2}{L} sin(\frac{n \pi x}{L}))^{2} dx

P = \frac{2}{L} \int_{x_{1}}^{x_{2}} (sin^{2}(\frac{n \pi x}{L}) dx

Evaluating the above integral from x₁ = 0 to x₂ = L/8 and solving it, we have:

P = \frac{2}{L} [\frac{L}{16} (1 - 4\frac{sin(\frac{n \pi}{4})}{n \pi})]

P = \frac{1}{8} (1 - 4\frac{sin(\frac{n \pi}{4})}{n \pi})    

Solving for n=4:

P = \frac{1}{8} (1 - 4\frac{sin(\frac{4 \pi}{4})}{4 \pi})    

P = \frac{1}{8} (1 - \frac{sin (\pi)}{\pi})    

P = \frac{1}{8}

I hope it helps you!

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Answer:

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