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3 years ago

X-Rays contradict to? a)beta b) alpha. C) gamma

Physics

2 answers:

Likurg_2 [28]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

hello hello hello hello hello hello hello hello hello

Vesna [10]3 years ago

3 0

<h3>X-Rays contradict to?</h3>

<h3>C. gamma </h3>

a type of penetrating electromagnetic radiation produced by the radioactive disintegration of atomic nuclei

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A friend rides, in turn, the rims of three fast merry-go-rounds while holding a sound source that emits isotropically at a certa

Aliun [14]

Complete Question

The complete question is shown on the first uploaded image

Answer:

The Ranking of the curve according to their speed would be equal Rank because $v_1 =v_2 =v_3$

The first frequency would have a higher rank compared to the other two which will have the same ranking when ranked with respect to their angular velocities because

$w_1 >w_2 = w_3$

The ranking of the second third frequency would be the same but their ranking would be greater than that of the first frequency because

$r_2 =r_3 >r_1$

Explanation:

Mathematically Frequency can be represented as

$F = \frac{v}{\lambda}$

Where $\lambda$ is the wavelength and v is the velocity

Now looking at the diagram we see that

For the first frequency we have

Let the wavelength be $\lambda_1 = \lambda$ , and the frequency $F_1 = F$

For the second frequency

Let the wavelength be $\lambda_2 = 2 \lambda$ , and the frequency $F_2 = \frac{F}{2}$

For the third frequency

Let the wavelength be $\lambda_3 = 2\lambda$ , and the frequency $F_3 = \frac{F}{2}$

To obtain v for each of the frequency we make v the subject in the equation above for each frequency

So,

For the first frequency we have

$v_1 = \lambda_1 F_1 = \lambda F$

For the second frequency

$v_2 = \lambda_2 F_2 = 2 \lambda*\frac{F} {2} = \lambda F$

For the third frequency

$v_3 = \lambda_3 F_3 = 2 \lambda*\frac{F} {2} = \lambda F$

Hence

The Ranking of the curve according to their speed would be equal Rank because $v_1 =v_2 =v_3$

Mathematically angular speed can be represented as

$w = 2 \pi f$

For the first frequency we have

$w_1 = 2\pi F_1 = 2 \pi F$

For the second frequency

$w_2 = 2 \pi F_2 = 2 \pi \frac{F}{2} = \pi F$

For the third frequency

$w_3 = 2 \pi F_3 = 2 \pi \frac{F}{2} = \pi F$

Hence

The first frequency would have a higher rank compared to the other two which will have the same ranking when ranked with respect to their angular velocities because

$w_1 >w_2 = w_3$

Mathematically the relationship between the angular velocity and the linear velocity can be represented as

$v = wr$

=> $r = \frac{v}{w}$

Since the linear velocity is constant we have that

$r \ \alpha \ \frac{1}{w}$

This means that r varies inversely to the angular velocity ,What this means for ranking due to the radius is that the ranking of the second third frequency would be the same but their ranking would be greater than that of the first frequency because

$r_2 =r_3 >r_1$

5 0

3 years ago

Do atoms ever touch

Mumz [18]

Answer:

nope never

Explanation:

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A compound microscope is made with an objective lens (f0 = 0.900 cm) and an eyepiece (fe = 1.10 cm). The lenses are separated by

Marizza181 [45]

Answer:

-252.52

Explanation:

L = Distance between lenses = 10 cm

D = Near point = 25 cm

$f_o$ = Focal length of objective = 0.9 cm

$f_e$ = Focal length of eyepiece = 1.1 cm

Magnification of a compound microscope is given by

$m=-\frac{L}{f_o}\frac{D}{f_e}\\\Rightarrow m=-\frac{10}{0.9}\times \frac{25}{1.1}\\\Rightarrow m=-252.52$

The angular magnification of the compound microscope is -252.52

6 0

3 years ago

Electromagnets can be used to lock doors. How could an engineer increase the strength of an electromagnetic lock? Check all that

ddd [48]

The answer should be A

3 0

4 years ago

Use the graph below to answer the following question: if average acceleration is calculated using the equation, “ change in velo

sergiy2304 [10]

Answer:

$a=9\ cm/s^2$

Explanation:

<u>Average Acceleration </u>

Acceleration is a physical magnitude defined as the change of velocity over time. When we have experimental data, we can compute it by calculating the slope of the line in velocity vs time graph.

Note: <em>We cannot see if the time axis is numbered in increments of 1 second, and we'll assume that. </em>

When $t_2=4\ sec$ , the graph shows a value of $v_2=36\ cm/s$