All categories

3 years ago

Why don't we see objects in the universe colliding or moving towards each other due to gravitational force?

Physics

2 answers:

Citrus2011 [14]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

the objects in the universe are evenly placed. This means that a celestial object's gravity may not be able to attract another object. Another reason may be that the stars in solar systems act as points of equilibrium for the planets in the system. Take for example the sun. It maintains the position of the planets in the system and likewise the earth maintains the position of the moon. You can picture it as evenly placed atoms in matter and the subsequent electrons held by the nucleus

Natali5045456 [20]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

BECAUSE OF THE DISTANCEBETWEEN EACH OBJECT DECREASES THE CHANCE IN SEEING OBJECTS COLIDE. HOPE THIS HELPS ...

You might be interested in

You are creating waves in a rope by shaking your hand back and forth. Without changing the distance your hand moves, you begin t

scoundrel [369]

Answer:

<u>Amplitude - remains the same</u>

<u>Frequency - increases</u>

<u>Period - decreases</u>

<u>Velocity - remains the same.</u>

<u />

Explanation:

The amplitude of the wave remains the same since you are not changing the distance your hand moves and the amplitude of the wave depends on how much distance your hand covers while moving.

The frequency of your wave increases since now you are moving your hand more number of times in the same period i.e. your hand is moving faster in one second. So, the frequency of your wave increases.

The period is the time taken by the wave to travel a certain distance. Since your hand is now moving faster, the wave will travel faster and will take less time to cover the same distance hence, we can say that its period will decrease.

The velocity of a wave depends on the medium in which it is travelling. Your wave was previously travelling in air and the new wave is also travelling in the same medium so the velocity of the wave remains unchanged.

7 0

3 years ago

For no apparent reason, a poodle is running at a constant speed of 5.00 m/s in a circle with radius 2.9 m . Let v⃗ 1 be the velo

Nostrana [21]

At a constant speed of 5.00 m/s, the speed at which the poodle completes a full revolution is

$\left(5.00\,\dfrac{\mathrm m}{\mathrm s}\right)\left(\dfrac{1\,\mathrm{rev}}{2\pi(2.9\,\mathrm m)}\right)\approx0.2744\,\dfrac{\mathrm{rev}}{\mathrm s}$

so that its period is $T=3.644\,\frac{\mathrm s}{\mathrm{rev}}$ (where 1 revolution corresponds exactly to 360 degrees). We use this to determine how much of the circular path the poodle traverses in each given time interval with duration $\Delta t$ . Denote by $\theta$ the angle between the velocity vectors (same as the angle subtended by the arc the poodle traverses), then

$\Delta t=0.4\,\mathrm s\implies\dfrac{3.644\,\mathrm s}{360^\circ}=\dfrac{0.4\,\mathrm s}\theta\implies\theta\approx39.56^\circ$

$\Delta t=0.2\,\mathrm s\implies\dfrac{3.644\,\mathrm s}{360^\circ}=\dfrac{0.2\,\mathrm s}\theta\implies\theta\approx19.78^\circ$

$\Delta t=7\times10^{-2}\,\mathrm s\implies\dfrac{3.644\,\mathrm s}{360^\circ}=\dfrac{7\times10^{-2}\,\mathrm s}\theta\implies\theta\approx6.923^\circ$

We can then compute the magnitude of the velocity vector differences $\Delta\vec v$ for each time interval by using the law of cosines:

$|\Delta\vec v|^2=|\vec v_1|^2+|\vec v_2|^2-2|\vec v_1||\vec v_2|\cos\theta$

$\implies|\Delta\vec v|=\begin{cases}3.384\,\frac{\mathrm m}{\mathrm s}&\text{for }\Delta t=0.4\,\mathrm s\\1.718\,\frac{\mathrm m}{\mathrm s}&\text{for }\Delta t=0.2\,\mathrm s\\0.6038\,\frac{\mathrm m}{\mathrm s}&\text{for }\Delta t=7\times10^{-2}\,\mathrm s\end{cases}$

and in turn we find the magnitude of the average acceleration vectors to be

$\implies|\vec a|=\begin{cases}8.460\,\frac{\mathrm m}{\mathrm s^2}&\text{for }\Delta t=0.4\,\mathrm s\\8.588\,\frac{\mathrm m}{\mathrm s^2}&\text{for }\Delta t=0.2\,\mathrm s\\8.625\,\frac{\mathrm m}{\mathrm s^2}&\text{for }\Delta t=7\times10^{-2}\,\mathrm s\end{cases}$

So that takes care of parts A, C, and E. Unfortunately, without knowing the poodle's starting position, it's impossible to tell precisely in what directions each average acceleration vector points.

5 0

3 years ago

Help with physical science please

alex41 [277]

1. Elastic potential energy (D. EEl)

In this situation, the spring is compressed with the toy on top of it. The toy is stationary, so it does not have kinetic energy. However, the spring is compressed, so it does have elastic potential energy, given by:

$E_{EL}=\frac{1}{2}kx^2$

where k is the spring constant and x is the compression of the spring.

2. Gravitational potential energy (C. Eg)

In this situation, the spring has been released, so it returns to its natural position, so its elastic potential energy is zero. The toy is also stationary, since it is at its top position, where its velocity is zero, so its kinetic energy is also zero. However, the toy is now at a certain height h above the spring, so it has gravitational potential energy given by:

$E_g = mgh$

where m is the mass of the toy and g is the gravitational acceleration.

3. Gravitational potential and kinetic energy (A. Eg and EK)

In this situation, the toy is falling: so, it is moving with a certain speed v, so it has kinetic energy given by

$E_k = \frac{1}{2}mv^2$

Also, since it is at a certain height above the spring, it still has some gravitational potential energy, as in the previous point.

4. Gravitational potential energy (C. Eg)

The jumper is standing on the bridge, so it has gravitational potential energy given by its height h above the ground:

$E_g=mgh$

where m is the mass of the jumper.

5. This exercise has the same text of the previous one.

8 0

3 years ago

Please help me do this. Study the scenario.

dem82 [27]

The mechanical advantage of the lever is 3 and the right option is A.) 3.

<h3>What is mechanical advantage?</h3>

Mechanical advantage can be defined as the ratio of load to effort in a machine.

To calculate the mechanical advantage of the lever, we use the formula below.

Formula

M.A = y/x................ Equation 1

Where:

M.A = mechanical advantage of the lever
y = distance moved by effort (input arm)
x = distance moved by load (output arm)

From the question,

Given:

y = 3 m
x = 1 m

Substitute these values into equation 1

M.A = 3/1
M.A = 3.

Hence, The mechanical advantage of the lever is 3 and the right option is A.) 3.

Learn more about mechanical advantage here: brainly.com/question/19038908

8 0

3 years ago

Explain why Mercury is closer to the Sun than Venus, yet Venus has higher temperatures.

tester [92]

It’s deeper in the orbit

5 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Why don't we see objects in the universe colliding or moving towards each other due to gravitational force?​

Why don't we see objects in the universe colliding or moving towards each other due to gravitational force?