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GrogVix [38]
3 years ago
15

In a sinusoidally driven series RLC circuit, the inductive resistance is XL = 100 Ω, the capacitive reactance is XC = 200 Ω, and

the resistance is R = 50 Ω. The current and applied emf would be in phase if
Physics
1 answer:
11Alexandr11 [23.1K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The current and the applied emf can be in phase if either of the two changes are made.

1) The inductance of the inductor is doubled, with everything else remaining constant.

2) The capacitance of the capacitor is doubled, with everything else remaining constant.

Explanation:

The current and applied emf for this type of circuit would be in phase when there is no phase difference between the two quantities. That is, Φ = 0°.

The phase difference between current and applied emf is given as

Φ = tan⁻¹ [(XL - Xc)/R]

XL = Impedance due to the inductor

Xc = Impedance due to the capacitor

R = Resistance of the resistor.

For Φ to be 0°, tan⁻¹ [(XL - Xc)/R] = 0

But only tan⁻¹ 0 = 0 rad

So, for the phase difference to be 0,

[(XL - Xc)/R] = 0

Meaning

XL = Xc

But for this question,

XL = 100 Ω, Xc = 200 Ω

For them to be equal, we have to find a way to increase the impedance of the inductor or reduce the impedance of the capacitor.

The impedance are given as

XL = 2πfL

Xc = (1/2πfC)

f = Frequency

L = Inductance of the inductor

C = capacitance of the capacitor

The impedance of the inductor can be increased from 100 Ω to 200 Ω by doubling the inductance of the inductor.

And the impedance of the capacitor can be reduced from 200 Ω to 100 Ω by also doubling the capacitance of the capacitor.

So, these are either of the two ways to make the current and applied emf to be in phase.

Hope this Helps!!!

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I'll be happy to solve the problem using the information that
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If it was a wave of infrared, then its speed would be close
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For the wave you described . . .

             Frequency  =  (speed)  /  (wavelength)

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                                 =      0.5 / sec

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A 5kg box is being pulled for a force of 20 n and is sliding with an acceleration of 2 m/s. Find the coefficient of friction
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Answer:

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Explanation:

Given:

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Acceleration = 2 m/s²

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Coefficient of friction

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Friction force = Mass x Acceleration.

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Friction force = 10 N

Coefficient of friction = Friction force / Force applied

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Example 3 :
kherson [118]

The friction factor and head loss when velocity is 1m/s is 0.289 and 1.80 × 10^8 respectively. Also, the friction factor and head loss when velocity is 3m/s is 0.096 and 5.3 × 10^8 respectively.

<h3>How to determine the friction factor</h3>

Using the formula

μ = viscosity = 0. 06 Pas

d =  diameter = 120mm = 0. 12m

V =  velocity = 1m/s and 3m/s

ρ = density = 0.9

a. Velocity = 1m/s

friction factor = 0. 52 × \frac{0. 06}{0. 12* 1* 0. 9}

friction factor = 0. 52 × \frac{0. 06}{0. 108}

friction factor = 0. 52 × 0. 55

friction factor = 0. 289

b. When V = 3mls

Friction factor = 0. 52 × \frac{0. 06}{0. 12 * 3* 0. 9}

Friction factor = 0. 52 × \frac{0. 06}{0. 324}

Friction factor = 0. 52 × 0. 185

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Loss When V = 1m/s

Head loss/ length = friction factor × 1/ 2g × velocity^2/ diameter

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Head loss =  1. 80 × 10^8

Head loss When V = 3m/s

Head loss = 0. 096 × \frac{1}{1. 334 *10^-10} × \frac{3^2}{0. 120} × \frac{1}{100}

Head loss = 5. 3× 10^8

Thus, the friction factor and head loss when velocity is 1m/s is 0.289 and 1.80 ×10^8 respectively also, the friction factor and head loss  when velocity is 3m/s is 0.096 and 5.3 ×10^8 respectively.

Learn more about friction here:

brainly.com/question/24338873

#SPJ1

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