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3 years ago

30 points!

Physics

1 answer:

vlada-n [284]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Since strong nuclear forces involve only nuclear particles (not electrons, bonds, etc) items 3 and 4 are eliminated.

Again item 2 refers to bonds between atoms and is eliminated.

This leaves only item 1.

Nuclear forces are very short range forces between components of the nucleus.

Weak nuclear forces are trillions of times smaller than strong forces.

Gravitational forces are much much smaller than the weak nuclear force.

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You are an industrial engineer with a shipping company. As part of the package- handling system, a small box with mass 1.60 kg i

Kisachek [45]

Answer:

v = 0.84m/s, v(max)= 0.997m/s

Explanation:

Initial work done by the spring, where c is the compression = 0.28m:

$W_s = \frac{1}{2}kc^2$

Work lost to friction:

$W_f =\mu mg(c-x)$

Energy:

$E = W_s-W_f=\frac{1}{2}kc^2 -\mu mg(c-x)=\frac{1}{2}mv^2+\frac{1}{2}kx^2$

(a) Solve for v:

$v=\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}(c^2-x^2)-2\mu g(c-x)}$

(b) Solve $\frac{dv}{dx}=0$ for x:

$\frac{dv}{dx}=\frac{\mu g-\frac{k}{m}x}{\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}(c^2-x^2)-2\mu g(c-x)}}$

$\frac{dv}{dx}=0$ if:

$\mu g-\frac{k}{m}x = 0$

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$v_{max}=\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}c^2-2\mu gc+(\mu g)^2\frac{m}{k}}$

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3 years ago

If a stereo has a dial that changes the volume of sounds the stereo makes what is the dial doing

vredina [299]

The volume dial is acting as a voltage divider or a variable resistor.

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Calculate the lowest energy (in ev) for an electron in an infinite well having a width of 0.050 mm.

MA_775_DIABLO [31]

The lowest energy of electron in an infinite well is 1.2*10^-33J.

To find the answer, we have to know more about the infinite well.

<h3>What is the lowest energy of electron in an infinite well?</h3>

It is given that, the infinite well having a width of 0.050 mm.
We have the expression for energy of electron in an infinite well as,

$E_n=\frac{n^2h^2}{8mL^2}$

where;

$m=9.1*10^{-31}kg\\L=0.050*10^{-3}m\\h=6.63*10^{-34}Js\\n=1$

Thus, the lowest energy of electron in an infinite well is,

$E_1=\frac{(6.63*10^{-34})^2}{8*9.1*10^{-31}*(0.050*10^{-3})}=1.2*10^{-33}J$

Thus, we can conclude that, the lowest energy of electron in an infinite well is 1.2*10^-33J.

Learn more about the infinite well here:

brainly.com/question/20317353

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1 year ago

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garri49 [273]

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to get the force in newtons, mass should be in kg and acceleration in m/s^2

conveniently, we don't need to convert units

we just need to multiply the two to get the force

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if significant digit is an issue, the least number if sig figs is 1 so the answer would be 20 N

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3 years ago

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Answer:

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Explanation:

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