Answer:
Tech A
Explanation:
The amount of energy required to apply the same force with a 1:1 ratio is divided into 4, so you can apply 4 times as much force than a 1:1 ratio. efficiency and speed come into play here, but assuming the machine powering the gear can run at a unlimited RPM, 4:1 will have more force and a slower output speed than a 2:1 ratio.
Answer:
7.94 ft^3/ s.
Explanation:
So, we are given that the '''model will be 1/6 scale (the modeled valve will be 1/6 the size of the prototype valve)'' and the prototype flow rate is to be 700 ft3 /s. Then, we are asked to look for or calculate or determine the value for the model flow rate.
Note that we are to use Reynolds scaling for the velocity as par the instruction from the question above.
Therefore; kp/ks = 1/6.
Hs= 700 ft3 /s and the formula for the Reynolds scaling => Hp/Hs = (kp/ks)^2.5.
Reynolds scaling==> Hp/ 700 = (1/6)^2.5.
= 7.94 ft^3/ s
Answer:
250.7mw
Explanation:
Volume of the reservoir = lwh
Length of reservoir = 10km
Width of reservoir = 1km
Height = 100m
Volume = 10x10³x10³x100
= 10⁹m³
Next we find the volume flow rate
= 0.1/100x10⁹x1/3600
= 277.78m³/s
To get the electrical power output developed by the turbine with 92 percent efficiency
= 0.92x1000x9.81x277.78x100
= 250.7MW
It is to be noted that it is impossible to find the Maclaurin Expansion for F(x) = cotx.
<h3>What is
Maclaurin Expansion?</h3>
The Maclaurin Expansion is a Taylor series that has been expanded around the reference point zero and has the formula f(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!
<h3>
What is the explanation for the above?</h3>
as indicated above, the Maclaurin infinite series expansion is given as:
F(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!
If F(0) = Cot 0
F(0) = ∝ = 1/0
This is not definitive,
Hence, it is impossible to find the Maclaurin infinite series expansion for F(x) = cotx.
Learn more about Maclaurin Expansion at;
brainly.com/question/7846182
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I THINK THE ANSWER IS B BUT IM NOT SURE OK BYE
