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vovangra [49]
2 years ago
5

một nguồn điện có điện trở 0,1 ôm được mắc với điện trở 4,8 ôm thành mạch kín. Khi đó hiệu điện thế giữa hai cực của nguồn điện

là 12V suất điện động của nguồn điện là
Physics
1 answer:
zmey [24]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

good morning mam going nme mam morning mam going on in the correct

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Which of the following would be most likely to contribute to molecules
lana66690 [7]

Answer:

B. Containing charged regions

Explanation:

The term i.e. intermolecular forces would be used to explain the attraction forces. Here the interaction would be done between molecules etc that acts between the acts & the other types of particles i.e. neighboring like atoms or ions

So in the given case, the option b would be contributed to the molecules that have intermolecular forces

hence, the option b is correct

8 0
2 years ago
What is compression
Talja [164]
The answer is B) region of high pressure in a medium caused by a passing wave

Compression is the forcing of the molecules of a medium, be it water, air, or something else, as a wave passes by. This forcing together of the molecules raises the pressure of the medium in the area that the wave passes through. 
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
an object is placed 15.8 cm in front of a thin converging lens with an unknown focal length. if a real image forms behind the le
storchak [24]
<span>On what:

f (is the focal length of the lens) = ? 
p (is the distance from the object to the lens) =15.8 cm
p' (is the distance from the image to the spherical lens) = 4.2 cm

</span><span>Using the Gaussian equation, to know where the object is situated (distance from the point).
</span>
\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{p} + \frac{1}{p'}
\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{15.8} + \frac{1}{4.2}
\frac{1}{f} = \frac{2.1}{33.18} + \frac{7.9}{33.18}
\frac{1}{f} =  \frac{10}{33.18}
Product of extremes equals product of means:
10*f = 1*33.18
10f = 33.18
f =  \frac{33.18}{10}
\boxed{\boxed{f = 3.318\:cm}}\end{array}}\qquad\quad\checkmark

6 0
3 years ago
What minimum speed does a 200 g puck need to make it to the top of a frictionless ramp that is 4.1 m long and inclined at 22 ∘?
myrzilka [38]

Answer:

5.5 m/ sec

Explanation:

Because the inclined surface is frictionless so we can assume that total change of energy is zero

i-e ΔE = 0

Or we can say that difference between final and initial energy is zero i-e

Ef- Ei =0

Where,

Ef= final energy at the top of the ramp= KEf+PEf

Ei= Initial energy at the bottom of the ramp=KEi+PEi

So we have

(KEf+PEf)-(KEi+PEi)=0

==>KEf-KEi+PEf-PEi=0            -------------(1)

KEf = mgh = 200×9.8×h

Where h= Sin 22 = h/d= h/4.1

or

0.375×4.1=h

or h= 1.54 m

So, PEf= 200×9.8×1.54=3018.4 j

and KEf= 1/2 mVf^{2}= 0.5×200×0=0 j

PEi= mgh = 200×9.8×0=0 j

KEi= 1/2 mVi^{2}=0.5×200×Vi^{2}=100Vi^{2} j

Put these values in eq 1, we get;

0-100 Vi^{2}+3018.4-0=0

-100 Vi^{2}=-3018.4

==> Vi^{2}= \frac{3018.4}{100} = 30.184

==>  Vi = \sqrt{30.184}  = 5.5 m.sec

7 0
3 years ago
Help plzzzzzzz i need thissssssssss
frutty [35]

Answer:

The final graph

Explanation:

The graph that curves downwards is negative acceleration. While the position decreases the slop increases.

8 0
2 years ago
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