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3 years ago

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Polarizers #1 and #3 are "crossed" such that their transmission axes are perpendicular to each other. Polarizer #2 is placed bet

ween the polarizers #1 and #3 with its transmission axis at 60◦ with respect to the transmission axis of the polarizer #1 (see the sketch). #1 #2 #3 60◦ After passing through polarizer #2 the intensity I2 (in terms of the intermediate intensity I1) is

1 answer:

Tomtit [17]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Explanation:

The angle between the polariser 1 and 2 is 60°

If I₁ be the intensity of light after polariser 1 , its intensity after polariser 2 that is I₂ can be expressed as follows

I₂ = I₁ cos² 60

= I₁ x 1/4

= I₁ x $\frac{1}{4}$

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If two particles have equal kinetic energies, are their momenta necessarily equal? explain.

Mandarinka [93]

Answer:

No the given statement is not necessarily true.

Explanation:

We know that the kinetic energy of a particle of mass 'm' moving with velocity 'v' is given by

$K.E=\frac{1}{2}mv^{2}$

Similarly the momentum is given by $m\times v$

For 2 particles with masses $m_{1},m_{2}$ and moving with velocities $v_{1},v_{2}$ respectively the respective kinetic energies is given by

$K.E_{1}=\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}$

$K.E_{2}=\frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2}^{2}$

Similarly For 2 particles with masses $m_{1},m_{2}$ and moving with velocities $v_{1},v_{2}$ respectively the respective momenta are given by

$p_{1}=m_{1}\times v_{1}$

$p_{2}=m_{2}\times v_{2}$

Now since it is given that the two kinetic energies are equal thus we have

$\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}=\frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2}^{2}\\\\(m_{1}v_{1})\times v_{1}=(m_{2}v_{2})\times v_{2}\\\\p_{1}\times v_{1}=p_{2}\times v_{2}\\\\\therefore \frac{p_{1}}{p_{2}}=\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}............(i)$

Thus we infer that the moumenta are not equal since the ratio on right of 'i' is not 1 , and can be 1 only if the velocities of the 2 particles are equal which becomes a special case and not a general case.

5 0

3 years ago

Using Rayleigh's criterion, calculate the diameter of an earth-based telescope that gives this resolution with 700 nm light.

pogonyaev

Complete Question

Due to blurring caused by atmospheric distortion, the best resolution that can be obtained by a normal, earth-based, visible-light telescope is about 0.3 arcsecond (there are 60 arcminutes in a degree and 60 arcseconds in an arcminute).Using Rayleigh's criterion, calculate the diameter of an earth-based telescope that gives this resolution with 700 nm light

Answer:

The diameter is $D = 0.59 \ m$

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

The best resolution is $\theta = 0.3 \ arcsecond$

The wavelength is $\lambda = 700 \ nm = 700 *10^{-9 } \ m$

Generally the

1 arcminute = > 60 arcseconds

=> x arcminute => 0.3 arcsecond

So

$x = \frac{0.3}{60 }$

=> $x = 0.005 \ arcminutes$

Now

60 arcminutes => 1 degree

0.005 arcminutes = > z degrees

=> $z = \frac{0.005}{60 }$

=> $z = 8.333 *10^{-5} \ degree$

Converting to radian

$\theta = z = 8.333 *10^{-5} * 0.01745 = 1.454 *10^{-6} \ radian$

Generally the resolution is mathematically represented as

$\theta = \frac{1.22 * \lambda }{ D}$

=> $D = \frac{1.22 * \lambda }{\theta }$

=> $D = \frac{1.22 * 700 *10^{-9} }{ 1.454 *10^{-6} }$

=> $D = 0.59 \ m$

4 0

2 years ago

Tom has two pendulums with him. Pendulum 1 has a ball of mass 0.2 kg attached to it and has a length of 5 m. Pendulum 2 has a ba

mars1129 [50]

Given Information:

Pendulum 1 mass = m₁ = 0.2 kg

Pendulum 2 mass = m₂ = 0.6 kg

Pendulum 1 length = L₁ = 5 m

Pendulum 2 length = L₂ = 1 m

Required Information:

Affect of mass on the frequency of the pendulum = ?

Answer:

The mass of the ball will not affect the frequency of the pendulum.

Explanation:

The relation between period and frequency of pendulum is given by

f = 1/T

The period of pendulum is given by

T = 2π√(L/g)

Where g is the acceleration due to gravity and L is the length of the string

As you can see the period (and frequency too) of pendulum is independent of the mass of the pendulum. Therefore, the mass of the ball will not affect the frequency of the pendulum.

Bonus:

Pendulum 1:

T₁ = 2π√(L₁/g)

T₁ = 2π√(5/9.8)

T₁ = 4.49 s

f₁ = 1/T₁

f₁ = 1/4.49

f₁ = 0.22 Hz

Pendulum 2:

T₂ = 2π√(L₂/g)

T₂ = 2π√(1/9.8)

T₂ = 2.0 s

f₂ = 1/T₂

f₂ = 1/2.0

f₂ = 0.5 Hz

So we can conclude that the higher length of the string increases the period of the pendulum and decreases the frequency of the pendulum.

3 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Can someone help me?

vlabodo [156]

1. Science.
2. evidence

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A 3.5 kg object moving at 8.1 m/s in the positive direction of an x axis has a one-dimensional elastic collision with an object

Tamiku [17]

Answer:

So the mass of the second object M will be 1.951 kg

Explanation:

We have given mass of the first object $m_1=3.5kg$ and its velocity $v_1=8.1m/sec$

Mass of the second object $m_2=M$ it is at rest so its velocity $v_2=0$

From conservation of momentum we know that

Initial momentum = final momentum

So $m_1v_1+m_2v_2=(m_1+m_2)v$

$3.5\times 8.1+M\times 0=(3.5+M)5.2$

$28.35=18.2+5.2M$

M = 1.951 kg

8 0

2 years ago