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likoan [24]
2 years ago
10

Two identical waves are destructively interfere. What will happen to the resulting wave?

Physics
1 answer:
storchak [24]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Because the disturbances are in opposite directions for this superposition, the resulting amplitude is zero for pure destructive interference

Explanation:

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Explanation:

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The patellar tendon attaches to the tibia at a 20 deg angle 3 cm from the axis of rotation at the knee. If the force generated i
gregori [183]

Answer:

the resulting angular acceleration is 15.65 rad/s²

Explanation:

Given the data in the question;

force generated in the patellar tendon F = 400 N

patellar tendon attaches to the tibia at a 20° angle 3 cm( 0.03 m ) from the axis of rotation at the knee.

so Torque produced by the knee will be;

T = F × d⊥

T = 400 N × 0.03 m × sin( 20° )

T = 400 N × 0.03 m × 0.342

T = 4.104 N.m

Now, we determine the moment of inertia of the knee

I = mk²

given that; the lower leg and foot have a combined mass of 4.2kg and a given radius of gyration of 25 cm ( 0.25 m )

we substitute

I = 4.2 kg × ( 0.25 m )²

I = 4.2 kg × 0.0626 m²

I = 0.2625 kg.m²

So from the relation of Moment of inertia, Torque and angular acceleration;

T = I∝

we make angular acceleration ∝, subject of the formula

∝ = T / I

we substitute

∝ = 4.104 / 0.2625

∝ = 15.65 rad/s²

Therefore, the resulting angular acceleration is 15.65 rad/s²

8 0
3 years ago
A 1.2 x 103 kg racecar, with a velocity of 8 m/s, collides with an unsuspecting 80 kg honey badger who is standing
aalyn [17]

Answer: 90 m/s

Explanation:

Given

mass of racecar M=1.2\times10^3\ kg

velocity of racecar u=8\ m/s

mass of still honeybadger m=80\ kg

after collision race car is traveling at a speed of v_1=2\ m/s

conserving linear momentum

Mu+m\times0=Mv_1+ mv_2\quad[v_2=\text{velocity of honeybadger after colllision}]

1.2\times10^3\times8+0=1.2\times10^3\times2+80\times v_2

1.2\times10^3(8-2)=80v_2\\v_2=\frac{7.2\times10^3}{80}=90\ m/s

4 0
3 years ago
How do i convert 0.25hr into minutes
Nikolay [14]

15 min

Explanation:

take 0.25 and put it in for 1.00 and you will see its 0.25 but when you add it all 4 times it is 1.00 so then you would take that and do it to the hour ... how many times does four go into 60

5 0
2 years ago
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