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Gre4nikov [31]
3 years ago
9

Please help me figure this out :"D​

Mathematics
1 answer:
PSYCHO15rus [73]3 years ago
4 0

Hello! In order to solve the first problem, you need to know the properties of a rhombus.

Some basic rules that apply to the problem you should know are:

  • All sides of a rhombus are equal, however, a rhombus consists of two angles.
  • Opposite angles are congruent.
  • Adjacent angles are supplementary.
  • Diagonals intersect each other at 90 degrees.
  • Diagonals bisect the opposite interior angles.
  • All angles of a rhombus will always add up to 360 degrees.

To be congruent, line segments must be equal in length. The same rule applies to angles, they must be of equal measure.

This being said,

1. HT is congruent to MA

2. ST is congruent to MS

3. AMH is congruent to ATH

4. If angle MHT is 80 degrees, than angle MAT is 80 degrees as they are vertical (opposite) angles. This means they are always congruent.

5. If line MH = 9, then due to congruency AT must equal 9.

A square is 360 degrees. Every line is equal, every angle is equal.

There are four right angles in a square. A right angle equals 90 degrees.

Since every line has the same length, they are all congruent.

1. True

There are no angles less or more than 90 degrees in a perfect square.

2. False

KD and IN are not perpendicular since they do not intercept. They are parallel.

3. False

Every angle in a perfect square is 90 degrees.

4. True

You can draw out lines to get a better perception of KN and ID. They are congruent due to properties of a square.

5. True

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The Management of a private investment club has a fund of $200,000 earmarked for investment in stocks. To arrive at an acceptabl
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In order to obtain a return of 9% per year, we need to invest $133,333.333 in low risk investments, $0 in mid risk investment and $66,666.666 in high risk investment.

Step-by-step explanation:

2/3 of the $200,000 for investment should go to low risk, and the other third to mid risk and high risk. Lets call X the amount that goes into high risk, then the amount that goes to mid risk is 200,000/3 - X.

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We end the year with

200,000 * 1.06 * 2/3 + (200,000/3 - X) * 1.09 + X * 1.15 = 214000 + X * (1.15 - 1.09) = 214000 + X * 0.06

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Thus, we are not investing in the mid risk category.

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Tan x + tan 2x = 0
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stated method in question is wrong!

<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>

We need to find the general solution of x ! for the equation tan x + tan 2x = 0

⇒  tan x + tan 2x = 0

⇒  (tan x + tan 2x)-tan2x = 0-tan2x

⇒  tan x = -tan2x

Now , we know that tan(\pi -2x) = -tan2x

⇒  tan x = -tan2x

⇒  tan x = tan(\pi -2x)

Now , we know that TanA = TanB \\A=B

⇒  tan x = tan(\pi -2x)

⇒  x = \pi -2x

⇒  3x = \pi

⇒  x = \frac{\pi}{3}     ......(1)

General solution of Tan x is : x = n\pi + \alpha , \

Here , from equation (1) we get  \alpha =\frac{\pi }{3} . Hence general solution is :

⇒ x = n\pi +\frac{\pi }{3} .Therefore , stated method in question is wrong!

4 0
3 years ago
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