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puteri [66]
3 years ago
12

Which is the destructive interference formula for diffraction grating problems? dsin = dcos = dcos = n dsin = n.

Physics
1 answer:
shusha [124]3 years ago
5 0

The destructive interference formula for diffraction grating problems is d sin \theta = (n+\frac{1}{2})\lambda.

<h3>What is the definition of destructive interference?</h3>

Destructive interference happens when the maxima of two waves are 180° out of phase a positive displacement of one wave is canceled exactly by a negative displacement of the other wave.

The formula for brighter patches resulting from constructive interference and darker patches resulting from destructive interference in a diffraction grating is:

\rm d sin \theta = n \lambda

The grating spacing is denoted by d, the angle of light is denoted by a the fringe order is denoted by n, and the wavelength is denoted by \rm \lambda.

The destructive interference formula is now based on the fact that destructive interference occurs between the fringes.

Hence the destructive interference formula for diffraction grating problems is d sin \theta = (n+\frac{1}{2})\lambda.

To learn more about destructive interference refer to the link;

brainly.com/question/16098226

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30 minus 3 plus 4 is equal to what​
Pepsi [2]

Answer:

31

Explanation:

quick maths

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A power cycle operates between hot and cold reservoirs at 1200 K and 300 K, respectively. At steady state the cycle develops a p
GenaCL600 [577]

Answer:

Explanation:

a ) Thermal efficiency = work output / heat input

= .38 MW / 1 MW = .38

OR 38%

Heat rejected at cold reservoir = heat input - work output

1 MW - .38 MW

= 0.62 MW.

b ) For reversible power output

efficiency = T₂ - T₁ / T₂   ; T₂ is temperature of hot reservoir and T₁ is temperature of cold reservoir.

= 1200 - 300 / 1200 = 900 / 1200

= .75

or 75%

rate at which heat is rejected

= 1 - .75 x 1

= .25 MW .

7 0
3 years ago
Derive the velocity of an electron in a hydrogen atom using Bohr's model. The electron has a mass of m, charge of (-e) and an or
Ahat [919]

Answer:

v=\frac{Ze^2}{2 \epsilon_0\times n\times h}

v=\frac {2.185\times 10^6}{n}\ m/s

Explanation:

According to Bohr's Theory,

The force of attraction acting between the electron and the nucleus is equal to the centrifugal force acting on the electron.

Thus,

\frac{Ze^2}{4\pi \epsilon_0 r^2}=m_e\frac{v^2}{r} ......1

Where, Z is the atomic number or the number of protons

r is the atomic radius

v is the velocity of the electron

m_e is the mass of the electron

Also,

Accoriding to Bohr, the angular momentum is quantized. He states that the angular momemtum is equal to the integral multiple of \frac {h}{2\times \pi}.

m_e vr=n\times \frac {h}{2\times \pi} ....2

solving r from equation 2, we get that:

r=n\times \frac {h}{2\times \pi\times m_e v}

Putting in 1 , we get that:

v=\frac{Ze^2}{2 \epsilon_0\times n\times h}

Applying values for hydrogen atom,

Z = 1

Mass of the electron (m_e) is 9.1093×10⁻³¹ kg

Charge of electron (e) is 1.60217662 × 10⁻¹⁹ C

\epsilon_0 = 8.854×10⁻¹² C² N⁻¹ m⁻²

h is Plank's constant having value = 6.626×10⁻³⁴ m² kg / s

We get that:

v=\frac {2.185\times 10^6}{n}\ m/s

4 0
4 years ago
Collins body metabolizes caffeine at a rate of 14.3% per hour (so the amount of caffeine in Collins body decreases by 14.3% each
Oksanka [162]

Answer:

It will take 4.5 h to metabolize 50% of the ingested caffeine.

Explanation:

Hi there!

We have to find how long will it take Collin´s body to metabolize 50% (40 g) of the ingested caffeine. We know that Collin´s body metabolizes 14.3 % of the amount of caffeine each hour. Then, every hour the caffeine will be reduced by 14.3 %.

After the first hour, the amount of caffeine will be:

80 - 80 · 0.143 = 68.56

Expressed in other form

80 · (1 - 0.143) = 68.56

80 · 0.857 = 68.56

After the second hour, the amount of caffeine will be:

68.56 - 68.56 · 0.143 = 58.75592

or

68.56 · 0.857 =  58.75592

Since 68.56 = 80 · 0.857, we could write the amount of caffeine after 2 hours as:

80. 0.857 · 0.857  =  58.75592

After the third hour:

58.75592 - 58.75592 · 0.143 = 50.35382344

or

58.75592 · 0.857 = 50.35382344

In the same way, since 58.75592 = 80. 0.857 · 0.857  the amount of caffeine after 3 hours will be:

80. 0.857 · 0.857  · 0.857 = 50.35382344

Then after x hours, the amount of caffeine in the body will be:

80 mg · 0.857ˣ

We have to find the value of x for which that expression is equal to 40 mg:

80 mg · 0.857ˣ = 40 mg

0.857ˣ = 40 mg/ 80 mg

0.857ˣ = 0.5

Apply ln to both side of the equation:

ln(0.857ˣ) = ln(0.5)

Apply logarithm property : ln(xᵃ) = a ln(x)

x ln(0.857) = ln(0.5)

x = ln(0.5)/ln(0.857)

x = 4.5 h

It will take 4.5 h to metabolize 50% of the ingested caffeine.

3 0
3 years ago
Calculate the volume of a 5-g sample of pure gold
Bond [772]
  • Answer:

<em>≈ 0.26 cm³</em>

  • Explanation:

<em>Hi there !</em>

<em>Gold is a metal with a very high density.</em>

<em>The density of gold is higher than that of lead.</em>

<em>Density(gold) = 19300 kg/m³ = 19.3 g/cm³</em>

<em />

<em>19.3 g ............ 1 cm³</em>

<em>5 g ..................x cm³</em>

<em>x = 5g×1cm³/19.3g = 0.2590 cm³ ≈ 0.26 cm³</em>

<em>Good luck ! </em>

5 0
4 years ago
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