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RoseWind [281]
2 years ago
8

A cylindrical 4340 steel bar is subjected to reversed rotating–bending stress cycling, which yielded the test results presented

in animated figure 8. 21. If the maximum applied load is 5,000 n, compute the minimum allowable bar diameter to ensure that fatigue failure will not occur. Assume a factor of safety of 2. 25 and that the distance between loadbearing points is 55. 0 mm
Engineering
1 answer:
yawa3891 [41]2 years ago
3 0

Based on the maximum applied load, the factor of safety, and the distance between the loadbearing points, the minimum allowable bar diameter is <u>18.6 mm. </u>

<h3>What is the minimum allowable bar diameter?</h3>

The diameter is included in the following formula:

Maximum stress / Factor of safety = (16 x Maximum applied load x distance between loadbearing points x 10⁻¹⁰) / (π x diameter³)

Solving gives:

(490 x 10⁶) / 2.25 = (16 x 5,000 x 55.0 x 10⁻¹⁰) / (π x diameter³)

217,777,777.78 = 0.00044 /  (π x diameter³)

diameter = 18.6 mm

Find out more on diameter at brainly.com/question/16874040.

#SPJ1

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4 years ago
For a body moving with simple harmonic motion state the equations to represent: i) Velocity ii) Acceleration iii) Periodic Time
max2010maxim [7]

Answer with Explanation:

The general equation of simple harmonic motion is

x(t)=Asin(\omega t+\phi)

where,

A is the amplitude of motion

\omega is the angular frequency of the motion

\phi is known as initial phase

part 1)

Now by definition of velocity we have

v=\frac{dx}{dt}\\\\\therefore v(t)=\frac{d}{dt}(Asin(\omega t+\phi )\\\\v(t)=A\omega cos(\omega t+\phi )

part 2)

Now by definition of acceleration we have

a=\frac{dv}{dt}\\\\\therefore a(t)=\frac{d}{dt}(A\omega cos(\omega t+\phi )\\\\a(t)=-A\omega ^{2}sin(\omega t+\phi )

part 3)

The angular frequency is related to Time period 'T' asT =\frac{2\pi }{\omega }

where

\omega is the angular frequency of the motion of the particle.

Part 4) The acceleration and velocities are plotted below

since the maximum value that the sin(x) and cos(x) can achieve in their respective domains equals 1 thus the maximum value of acceleration and velocity is A\omega ^{2} and A\omega respectively.

4 0
3 years ago
(TCO 4) A system samples a sinusoid of frequency 190 Hz at a rate of 120 Hz and writes the sampled signal to its output without
steposvetlana [31]

Answer:

The frequency that the sampling system will generate in its output is 70 Hz

Explanation:

Given;

F = 190 Hz

Fs = 120 Hz

Output Frequency = F - nFs

When n = 1

Output Frequency = 190 - 120 = 70 Hz

Therefore, if a system samples a sinusoid of frequency 190 Hz at a rate of 120 Hz and writes the sampled signal to its output without further modification, the frequency that the sampling system will generate in its output is 70 Hz

5 0
4 years ago
Air enters the combustor of a jet engine at p1=10 atm, T1=1000°R, and M1=0.2. Fuel is injected and burned, with a fuel/air mass
snow_lady [41]

Answer:

M2 = 0.06404

P2 = 2.273

T2 = 5806.45°R

Explanation:

Given that p1 = 10atm, T1 = 1000R, M1 = 0.2.

Therefore from Steam Table, Po1 = (1.028)*(10) = 10.28 atm,

To1 = (1.008)*(1000) = 1008 ºR

R = 1716 ft-lb/slug-ºR cp= 6006 ft-lb/slug-ºR fuel-air ratio (by mass)

F/A =???? = FA slugf/slugaq = 4.5 x 108ft-lb/slugfx FA slugf/sluga = (4.5 x 108)FA ft-lb/sluga

For the air q = cp(To2– To1)

(Exit flow – inlet flow) – choked flow is assumed For M1= 0.2

Table A.3 of steam table gives P/P* = 2.273,

T/T* = 0.2066,

To/To* = 0.1736 To* = To2= To/0.1736 = 1008/0.1736 = 5806.45 ºR Gives q = cp(To* - To) = (6006 ft-lb/sluga-ºR)*(5806.45 – 1008)ºR = 28819500 ft-lb/slugaSetting equal to equation 1 above gives 28819500 ft-lb/sluga= FA*(4.5 x 108) ft-lb/slugaFA =

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3 years ago
The 150-lb man sits in the center of the boat, which has a uniform width and a weight per linear foot of 3 lb&gt;ft. Determine t
irina1246 [14]

Answer:

M = 281.25 lb*ft

Explanation:

Given

W<em>man</em> = 150 lb

Weight per linear foot of the boat: q = 3 lb/ft

L = 15.00 m

M<em>max</em> = ?

Initially, we have to calculate the Buoyant Force per linear foot (due to the water exerts a uniform distributed load upward on the bottom of the boat):

∑ Fy = 0  (+↑)     ⇒    q'*L - W - q*L = 0

⇒       q' = (W + q*L) / L

⇒       q' = (150 lb + 3 lb/ft*15 ft) / 15 ft

⇒       q' = 13 lb/ft   (+↑)

The free body diagram of the boat is shown in the pic.

Then, we apply the following equation

q(x) = (13 - 3) = 10   (+↑)

V(x) = ∫q(x) dx = ∫10 dx = 10x   (0 ≤ x ≤ 7.5)

M(x) = ∫10x dx = 5x²  (0 ≤ x ≤ 7.5)

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then

M(7.5) = 5(7.5)² = 281.25 lb*ft

8 0
4 years ago
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