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2 years ago

Can anyone please explain this point with an example. I have presentation tomorrow.

Physics

1 answer:

r-ruslan [8.4K]2 years ago

8 0

Explanation:

Efficiency is a way of describing the amount of useful output a process or machine can generate as a percentage of the input required to make it go. In other words, it compares how much energy is used to do work versus how much is lost or wasted to the environment. The more efficient the machine, the less energy wasted.

For example, if a heat engine is able to turn 75 percent of the fuel it receives into motion, while 25 percent is lost as heat in the process, it would be 75 percent efficient. Out of the original 100 percent of the fuel, 75 percent was output as useful work.

the equation:

energy efficiency =useful output energy/total input energy

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3 years ago

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2 years ago

One end of a thin rod is attached to a pivot, about which it can rotate without friction. Air resistance is absent. The rod has

Mars2501 [29]

Answer:

6.86 m/s

Explanation:

This problem can be solved by doing the total energy balance, i.e:

initial (KE + PE) = final (KE + PE). { KE = Kinetic Energy and PE = Potential Energy}

Since the rod comes to a halt at the topmost position, the KE final is 0. Therefore, all the KE initial is changed to PE, i.e, ΔKE = ΔPE.

Now, at the initial position (the rod hanging vertically down), the bottom-most end is given a velocity of v0. The initial angular velocity(ω) of the rod is given by ω = v/r , where v is the velocity of a particle on the rod and r is the distance of this particle from the axis.

Now, taking v = v0 and r = length of the rod(L), we get ω = v0/ 0.8 rad/s

The rotational KE of the rod is given by KE = 0.5Iω², where I is the moment of inertia of the rod about the axis of rotation and this is given by I = 1/3mL², where L is the length of the rod. Therefore, KE = 1/2ω²1/3mL² = 1/6ω²mL². Also, ω = v0/L, hence KE = 1/6m(v0)²

This KE is equal to the change in PE of the rod. Since the rod is uniform, the center of mass of the rod is at its center and is therefore at a distane of L/2 from the axis of rotation in the downward direction and at the final position, it is at a distance of L/2 in the upward direction. Hence ΔPE = mgL/2 + mgL/2 = mgL. (g = 9.8 m/s²)

Now, 1/6m(v0)² = mgL ⇒ v0 = $\sqrt{6gL}$

Hence, v0 = 6.86 m/s

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3 years ago