Answer:
(a) a = - 201.8 m/s²
(b) s = 197.77 m
Explanation:
(a)
The acceleration can be found by using 1st equation of motion:
Vf = Vi + at
a = (Vf - Vi)/t
where,
a = acceleration = ?
Vf = Final Velocity = 0 m/s (Since it is finally brought to rest)
Vi = Initial Velocity = (632 mi/h)(1609.34 m/ 1 mi)(1 h/ 3600 s) = 282.53 m/s
t = time = 1.4 s
Therefore,
a = (0 m/s - 282.53 m/s)/1.4 s
<u>a = - 201.8 m/s²</u>
<u></u>
(b)
For the distance traveled, we can use 2nd equation of motion:
s = Vi t + (0.5)at²
where,
s = distance traveled = ?
Therefore,
s = (282.53 m/s)(1.4 s) + (0.5)(- 201.8 m/s²)(1.4 s)²
s = 395.54 m - 197.77 m
<u>s = 197.77 m</u>
The sum of all forces on an object is the net force or resultant force. If all the forces cancel out , resultant force is zero , otherwise unbalanced force will cause acceleration of object .
Force is the vector, has both direction and magnitude.
The speed of the pin after the elastic collision is 9 m/s east.
<h3>
Final speed of the pin</h3>
The final speed of the pin is calculated by applying the principle of conservation of linear momentum as follows;
m1u1 + mu2 = m1v1 + m2v2
where;
- m is the mass of the objects
- u is the initial speed of the objects
- v is the final speed of the objects
4(1.4) + 0.4(0) = 4(0.5) + 0.4v2
5.6 = 2 + 0.4v2
5.6 - 2 = 0.4v2
3.6 = 0.4v2
v2 = 3.6/0.4
v2 = 9 m/s
Thus, The speed of the pin after the elastic collision is 9 m/s east.
Learn more about linear momentum here: brainly.com/question/7538238
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As per the question, the point charge is given as [q] = 6.8 C
The velocity of the charged particle [v] = 
The magnetic field [B] = 1.4 T
The angle made between magnetic field and velocity
= 15 degree.
We are asked to calculate the magnetic force experienced by the charged particle.
The magnetic force experienced by the charged particle is calculated as -
Magnetic force 
i.e F = 





Hence, the force experienced by the charged particle is C i.e 