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Nesterboy [21]
2 years ago
10

By the end of the day, a 45 ft x 25 ft x 8 ft office has a carbon dioxide air level of 1,100 ppm. Determine the time in hours ne

cessary to reduce this concentration to ambient levels (approximately 325 ppm) assuming 20% of the return is "fresh" makeup air and there are two air changes per hour.
Engineering
1 answer:
Julli [10]2 years ago
6 0

The total hours that are necessary to reduce carbon dioxide level to at least 325 ppm are 4 hours.

<h3>How does carbon dioxide concentration change over time?</h3>

First hour:

  • 1,100 - 20 %
  • 1,100 - 220 = 880

  • 880 - 20%
  • 880 - 176 = 704

Second hour:

  • 704 - 20%
  • 704 - 140.8 =663.2

  • 663.2 - 20%
  • 663.2 - 132.64 = 530.56

Third hour:

  • 530.56 - 20%
  • 530.56 - 106.112 = 424.44

  • 424.44 - 20%
  • 424.44 - 84.88 = 339.55

Fourth hour:

  • 339.55 - 20%
  • 339.55 - 67.91 = 271.64

Learn more about carbon dioxide in: brainly.com/question/3049557

#SPJ1

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What is a core self-evaluation, include identifying and explaining the components of core self-evaluation. And, how a group lead
Brilliant_brown [7]

Answer and Explanation:

Core self-evaluations (CSEs) stands for a wide personality trait that comprises of 4 positive individual traits, namely:

(1) self-efficacy

(2) self esteem

(3) locus of control

(4) emotional stability.

Baiscally, when people have a positive evaluation about themselves, or quality core self-evaluation, they believe that they are worthy and fit for a task. They trust their capability and effectiveness. This leads to some implications in their managers duties and careers, which could either be positive or negative.

A group leader can use CSEs to create a more effective unit by implementing the ten items points of Generalized Self Efficacy Tool to test the self efficiency of individual personnels in that unit.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The electron beam in a TV picture tube carries 1015 electrons per second. As a design engineer, determine the voltage needed to
leonid [27]

Answer:

The voltage needed to accelerate the electron beam is 2.46 x 10^16 Volts

Explanation:

The rate of electron flow is given as:

q = 1015 electrons per second

The total current is given by:

Total Current = (Rate of electron flow)(Charge on one electron)

Total Current = I = (1015 electrons/s)(1.6 x 10^-19 C/electron)

I = 1.624 x 10^-16 A

Now, we know that electric power is given as:

Electric Power = Current x Voltage

P = IV

V = P/I

V = 4 W/1.624 X 10^-16 A

<u>V = 2.46 x 10^16 Volts</u>

6 0
3 years ago
A wastewater treatment plant has two primary clarifiers, each 20m in diameter with a 2-m side-water depth. the effluent weirs ar
jasenka [17]

Answer:

overflow rate 20.53 m^3/d/m^2

Detention time 2.34 hr

weir loading  114.06 m^3/d/m

Explanation:

calculation for single clarifier

sewag\  flow Q = \frac{12900}{2} = 6450 m^2/d

surface\  area =\frac{pi}{4}\times diameter ^2 = \frac{pi}{4}\times 20^2

surface area = 314.16 m^2

volume of tankV  = A\times side\ water\ depth

                             =314.16\times 2 = 628.32m^3

Length\ of\  weir = \pi \times diameter of weir

                       = \pi \times 18 = 56.549 m

overflow rate =v_o = \frac{flow}{surface\ area} = \frac{6450}{314.16} = 20.53 m^3/d/m^2

Detention timet_d = \frac{volume}{flow} = \frac{628.32}{6450} \times 24 = 2.34 hr

weir loading= \frac{flow}{weir\ length} = \frac{6450}{56.549} = 114.06 m^3/d/m

6 0
3 years ago
thermodynamics A nuclear power plant based on the Rankine cycle operates with a boiling-water reactor to develop net cycle power
IrinaK [193]

Answer:

(a) the percent thermal efficiency is 27.94%

(b) the temperature of the cooling water exiting the condenser is 31.118°C

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
X cotx expansion using maclaurins theorem.
Lemur [1.5K]

It is to be noted that it is impossible to find the Maclaurin Expansion for F(x) = cotx.

<h3>What is Maclaurin Expansion?</h3>

The Maclaurin Expansion is a Taylor series that has been expanded around the reference point zero and has the formula f(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!

<h3>What is the explanation for the above?</h3>

as indicated above, the Maclaurin infinite series expansion is given as:

F(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!

If F(0) = Cot 0

F(0) = ∝ = 1/0

This is not definitive,

Hence, it is impossible to find the Maclaurin infinite series expansion for F(x) = cotx.

Learn more about Maclaurin Expansion at;
brainly.com/question/7846182
#SPJ1

4 0
1 year ago
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