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nadya68 [22]
2 years ago
14

If the ocular lens magnifies a specimen 10x, and the objective lens used magnifies the specimen 35x. What is the total magnifica

tion being used to observe the specimen?
Physics
1 answer:
Kay [80]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

350x^2

Explanation:

I'm assuming you're saying you're using them together, like stacking them on top of each other, so if that's the case then this is a simple multiplication problem, which can be written as 10x(35x). Solve it and you get 350x^2.

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Wayne wants to become a lifeguard. For part of the lifeguard test, he has to float in the pool for five minutes. Why does Wayne
Nastasia [14]

Answer:

D

Explanation:

The gravity is pushing the water downward so Wayne could go down but the water is pushing Wayne to go up which would make him float.

6 0
3 years ago
What causes air to move recirculate from one place to another
sergey [27]

Answer:air flow and the movement from where it’s coming from

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Which of the following allows the human body to maintain stability in response to a viral infection
tiny-mole [99]
The spine is the one that keeps a huminss body mantaned
3 0
3 years ago
Given the isotope 2Fes, which has an actual mass of 55.934939 u: a) b) Determine the mass defect of the nucleus in atomic mass u
SSSSS [86.1K]

Answer:

Mass defect of each iron-56 nuclei:

The binding energy per nucleon of Iron-56 is approximately 8.6 MeV.

Explanation:

According to the physics constants table on Chemistry Libretexts:

  • Proton rest mass: \rm 1.0072765\;amu;
  • Neutron rest mass: \rm 1.0086649\; amu.
  • Speed of light in vacuum: \rm 2.99792458\times 10^{8}\;m\cdot s^{-1}.
  • Charge on an electron: \rm 1.6021765\times 10^{-19}\;C.

<h3>a)</h3>

The mass defect of a nucleus is equal to the sum of the mass of its parts (protons and, in most cases, neutrons) minus the mass of the nucleus.

The atomic number of iron is 26. There are 26 protons in each iron-56 nucleus. The mass number 56 indicates that there are 56 nucleons (neutrons and protons) in each iron-56 nucleus. The other 56 - 26 = 30 particles are neutrons.

The mass of protons and neutrons in each iron-56 nucleus will be:

\rm 26 \times 1.0072765 + 30 \times 1.0086649 = 56.464736\;amu.

According to this question, the mass of an iron-56 nucleus is equal to 55.934939 amu. The mass defect will be

\rm 56.464736 - 55.934939 = 0.514197\;amu.

<h3>b)</h3>

By the mass-energy equivalence,

E = m\cdot c^{2}.

Refer to this equation, the speed of light in vacuum c^{2} is the conversion factor between mass m and energy E. The value of c is usually given only in SI units \rm m\cdot s^{-1}. Accordingly, the value of c^{2} will be in the SI unit \rm m^{2}\cdot s^{-2} = J\cdot kg^{-1}.

Convert million electron-volts to joules.

One electron-volt is equal to the electrical work done moving an electron across a potential difference of one volt.  

\begin{aligned}\rm 1 MeV&= \rm 10^{6}\; eV\\ &= \rm (10^{6}\times 1.6021765\times 10^{-19}\;C)\times 1\; V\\&=\rm 1.6021765\times 10^{-19}\;J\end{aligned}.

Convert the unit of c^{2} from \rm m^{2}\cdot s^{-2} = J\cdot kg^{-1} to the desired \rm MeV \cdot amu^{-1}:

\begin{aligned}c^{2} &= \rm {\left(2.99792458\times 10^{8}\;m\cdot s^{-1}\right)}^{2}\\&=\rm 8.987551787\times 10^{16}\; m^{2}\cdot s^{-2}\\ &= \rm 8.987551787\times 10^{16}\; J\cdot kg^{-1}\\&= \rm 8.987551787\times 10^{16}\; J\cdot kg^{-1}\times \frac{1\;MeV}{1.6021765\times 10^{-13}\;J}\times \frac{1\times 10^{-3}\;kg}{6.022142\times 10^{23}\;amu}\\&\approx \rm 931.602164\;MeV\cdot amu^{-1}\end{aligned}.

Total binding energy in each iron-56 nucleus:

\begin{aligned}E &= m\cdot c^{2}\\&= \rm 0.514197\;amu \times 9.31602164\;MeV\cdot amu^{-1} \\&=\rm 479.027038\; MeV \end{aligned}.

Again, the mass number 56 indicates that there are 56 nucleons in each iron-56 nucleus. The binding energy per nucleon of iron-56 \mathrm{^{56}Fe} will be:

\displaystyle \rm \frac{479.027038\; MeV}{56} \approx 8.6\; MeV.

6 0
3 years ago
Is there a "real" simple machine that has an efficiency of 100%?
VARVARA [1.3K]

Answer:

NO

Explanation:

No, a machine cannot be 100% efficient. This is due to the movement of the moving parts siding against each other and causing friction. This friction is the one that creates heat and causes wear and tear between moving ports f the machine hence making the machine to decrease in efficiency with time

8 0
3 years ago
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