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2 years ago

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iron ball weight 400 gram inside water when it is completely impressed in water 53 gram water is displaced what will be the weig

ht of iron ball in air?

1 answer:

Alika [10]2 years ago

8 0

Answer:

453 gm

Explanation:

<u>Immersed </u>objects are buoyed up by force equal to mass of displaced liquid

400 + 53 = 453 gm in air

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Arbeitsauftrag 2

kramer

Explanation:

<em>The height of the pendulum is measured from the lowest point it reaches (point 3). </em>

At 1, the kinetic energy of the pendulum is zero (because it is not moving), and it has maximum potential energy.

At 2, the pendulum has both kinetic and potential energy, and how much of each it has depends on its height—smaller the height greater the kinetic energy and lower the potential energy.

At 3, the height is zero; therefore, the pendulum has no potential energy, and has maximum kinetic energy.

At 4, the pendulum again gains potential energy as it climbs back up, Again how much of each forms of energy it has depends on its height.

At 5, the maximum height is reached again; therefore, the pendulum has maximum potential energy and no kinetic energy.

Hope this helps :)

8 0

3 years ago

A wheel has a constant angular acceleration of 4.5 rad/s2. during a certain 5.0 s interval, it turns through an angle of 128 rad

dalvyx [7]

The solution for this problem is through this formula:Ø = w1 t + 1/2 ã t^2
where:Ø - angular displacement w1 - initial angular velocity t - time ã - angular acceleration
128 = w1 x 4 + ½ x 4.5 x 5^2 128 = 4w1 + 56.254w1 = -128 + 56.25 4w1 = 71.75w1 = 71.75/4
w1 = 17.94 or 18 rad s^-1
w1 = wo + ãt
w1 - final angular velocity
wo - initial angular velocity
18 = 0 + 4.5t t = 4 s

3 0

3 years ago

Please answer correctly to be marked as brainly.

lidiya [134]

A- PRICE

B-QUANTITY

C-SUPPLY

D-DEMAND

E-EQUILIBRIUM POINT

Explanation:

It is the Supply Demand curve in Economics. It gives relationship between price and quantity

7 0

3 years ago

Determine the angle of an incline that would yield a constant velocity, given the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.10.

azamat

Answer:

$\theta=5.71^{o}$

Explanation:

In order to solve this problem, we mus start by drawing a free body diagram of the given situation (See attached picture).

From the free body diagram we can now do a sum of forces in the x and y direction. Let's start with the y-direction:

$\sum F_{y}=0$

$-W_{y}+N=0$

$N=W_{y}$

so:

$N=mgcos(\theta)$

now we can go ahead and do a sum of forces in the x-direction:

$\sum F_{x}=0$

the sum of forces in x is 0 because it's moving at a constant speed.

$-f+W_{x}=0$

$-\mu_{k}N+mg sen(\theta)=0$

$-\mu_{k}mg cos(\theta)+mg sen(\theta)=0$

so now we solve for theta. We can start by factoring mg so we get:

$mg(-\mu_{k} cos(\theta)+sen(\theta))=0$

we can divide both sides into mg so we get:

$-\mu_{k} cos(\theta)+sen(\theta)=0$

this tells us that the problem is independent of the mass of the object.

$\mu_{k} cos(\theta)=sen(\theta)$

we now divide both sides of the equation into $cos(\theta)$ so we get:

$\mu_{k}=\frac{sen(\theta)}{cos(\theta)}$

$\mu_{k}=tan(\theta)$

so we now take the inverse function of tan to get:

$\theta=tan^{-1}(\mu_{k})$

so now we can find our angle:

$\theta=tan^{-1}(0.10)$

so

$\theta=5.71^{o}$

8 0

3 years ago

Does latitude has an effect on weight?

lord [1]

Answer:

I think so but i could be wrong..

Explanation:

5 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers