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adell [148]
3 years ago
7

Question #6

Physics
1 answer:
Novay_Z [31]3 years ago
4 0

The two points on a periodic wave in a medium are said to be in phase if they have the same amplitude and are moving in the same direction.

Option 4.

Explanation:

A periodic wave is termed for waves which flow in a repetition pattern in a given time scale. Periodic wave can also be termed as a transverse wave. So a transverse wave have various crests and troughs. The two successive crests and two successive troughs are said to be in phase with each other.

Thus, for a periodic wave in a medium, the in phase can be obtained in two points which have the same amplitude and are moving in the same direction.

As amplitude is a scalar quantity and so direction should be taken into consideration for making the points related to successive crests only in phase with themselves. Also this also relates the points related to successive troughs to be in phase with each other. But a crest and a trough will not be in phase with each other.

Thus, option 4, that is the two points on a periodic wave in a medium are said to be in phase if they have the same amplitude and are moving in the same direction.

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vivado [14]

Answer:

T=1.384×10⁶seconds

Explanation:

Given data

p (Intensity)=1.30 kw/m²

E (Energy)=1.8×10⁹ J

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T (Time required)=?

Solution

E=PT   ................eq(i)

where E is energy

P is radiation power

T is time

Radiating Power is given as

P=pA

Where p is intensity

A is Area

Put P=pA in eq(i) we get

E=pAT

T=E/pA

T=\frac{(1.8*10^{9}}{(1.30*10^{3} )*(1.00)}  )\\T=1.38*10^{6} seconds

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Galina-37 [17]

Answer:

220 A

Explanation:

The magnetic force on the floating rod due to the rod held close to the ground is F = BI₁L where B = magnetic field due to rod held close the ground = μ₀I₂/2πd where μ₀ = permeability of free space = 4π × 10⁻⁷ H/m, I₂ = current in rod close to ground and d = distance between both rods = 11 mm = 0.011 m. Also, I₁ = current in floating rod and L = length of rod = 1.1 m.

So, F = BI₁L

F = (μ₀I₂/2πd)I₁L

F = μ₀I₁I₂L/2πd

Given that the current in the rods are the same, I₁ = I₂ = I

So,

F = μ₀I²L/2πd

Now, the magnetic force on the floating rod equals its weight , W = mg where m = mass of rod = 0.10kg and g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s²

So, F = W

μ₀I²L/2πd = mg

making I subject of the formula, we have

I² = 2πdmg/μ₀L

I = √(2πdmg/μ₀L)

substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

I = √(2π × 0.011 m × 0.1 kg × 9.8 m/s²/[4π × 10⁻⁷ H/m × 1.1 m])

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I = √(0.01078 kgm²/s²/[2.2 × 10⁻⁷ H])

I = √(0.0049 × 10⁷kgm²/s²H)

I = √(0.049 × 10⁶kgm²/s²H)

I = 0.22 × 10³ A

I = 220 A

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Weight = (mass) x (acceleration of gravity where the object is)

You didn't tell us WHERE the boulder is, so I have to assume that it's on Mars, where the acceleration of gravity is 3.71 m/s².

675,000 N = (mass) (3.71 m/s²)

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6 0
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