If the pressure in the oil is 3.75 atm at the front end, how long can the pipeline be so that the pressure at the far end is no
1 answer:
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Answer:
The answer is B.
Explanation:
Given that the <em>current </em>(Ampere) in a series circuit is same so we can ignore it. We can assume that the total voltage is 60V and all the 3 resistance are different, 20Ω, 40Ω and 60Ω. So first, we have to find the total resistance by adding :
Total resistance = 20Ω + 40Ω + 60Ω
= 120Ω
Next, we have to find out that 1Ω is equal to how many voltage by dividing :
120Ω = 60V
1Ω = 60V ÷ 120
1Ω = 0.5V
Lastly, we have to calculate the voltage at R1 so we have to multiply by 20 (R1) :
1Ω = 0.5V
20Ω = 0.5V × 20
20Ω = 10V
Answer Explanation :
Poiseuille equation: this equation is used for non ideal flow this is used for the calculation of pressure in laminar flow it is physical law we know that fluid in laminar flow, flows across the pipe whose diameter is larger than the length of pipe
in mathematical form the equation can be expressed as
Q =
where η is the cofficient of viscosity
now if we assume a small sphere of radius a is suspended freely in the plane of the laminar flow then for assuring that the sphere does not migrate with the flow we have to calculate the rate of flow of the liquid