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algol13
3 years ago
14

Show that the effective force constant of a series combination is given by 1keff=1k1+1k2. (Hint: For a given force, the total di

stance stretched by the equivalent single spring is the sum of the distances stretched by the springs in combination. Also, each spring must exert the same force. Do you see why?
Physics
1 answer:
S_A_V [24]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

1keff=1k1+1k2

see further explanation

Explanation:for clarification

Show that the effective force constant of a series combination is given by 1keff=1k1+1k2. (Hint: For a given force, the total distance stretched by the equivalent single spring is the sum of the distances stretched by the springs in combination. Also, each spring must exert the same force. Do you see why?

From Hooke's law , we know that the force exerted on an elastic object is directly proportional to the extension provided that the elastic limit is not exceeded.

Now the spring is in series combination

F\alphae

F=ke

k=f/e.........*

where k is the force constant or the constant of proportionality

k=f/e

f_{eff} =f_{1} +f_{2}............................1

also for effective force constant

divide all through by extension

1) Total force is

Ft=F1+F2

Ft=k1e1+k2e2

F = k(e1+e2) 2)

Since force on the 2 springs is the same, so

k1e1=k2e2

e1=F/k1 and e2=F/k2,

and e1+e2=F/keq

Substituting e1 and e2, you get

1/keq=1/k1+1/k2

Hint: For a given force, the total distance stretched by the equivalent single spring is the sum of the distances stretched by the springs in combination.

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A (20*20) cm² loop has a resistance of 0.10 Ω. A magnetic field perpendicular to the loop is B = 4t - 2t², where B is in tesla a
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Answer with Explanation:

We are given that

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We know that magnetic flux

\phi=BA

Emf ,E=\mid \frac{d\phi}{dt}\mid =\mid\frac{d(BA}{dt}\mid =\mid A\frac{dB}{dt}=400\times 10^{-4}\times \frac{4t-2t^2}{dt}\mid =\mid400\times 10^{-4}\times(4-4t)\mid

Current, I=\frac{E}{R}

Current, I=\frac{\mid 400\times 10^{-4}(4-4t)\mid }{0.1}=1.6\mid (1-t)\mid

Substitute t=0 s

Then, I=1.6\mid (1-0)\mid=1.6 A

Substitute t=1 s

Then, I=1.6\mid (1-1)\mid=0

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8 0
3 years ago
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A piece of copper wire with thin insulation, 200 m long and 1.00 mm in diameter, is wound onto a plastic tube to form a long sol
bearhunter [10]

Answer:

 N= 3

Explanation:

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         E = - A cos θ (B - B₀) / t

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The magnetic field produced by a solenoid is

           B = μ₀ N/L   I

for which

            B₀ = μ₀  N/L   I

           

The final field is zero, because the current is zero

            B = 0

We substitute

           E = - (L² / 4π N²)  (0 - μ₀ N/L I) / t

           E = μ₀ L I / (4π N t)

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