What exactly is meant by a "freely falling" object? (i.e. what is the definition of free fall?)?

zepelin [54]

Sorry i can’t help sorry good luck tho!!!!

4 0

4 years ago

A large airplane typically has three sets of wheels: one at the front and two farther back, one on each side under the wings. Co

Tems11 [23]

(a) The force the ground exerts on each set of rear wheels when the plane is at rest on the runway is 0.743 MN.

(b) The force the ground exerts on the front set of wheels is 0.239 MN.

<h3>Center mass of the airplane</h3>

The concept of center mass of an object can be used to dtermine the mass distribution of the airplane along the line through the center.

<h3>Some assumptions</h3>

The wheels under the wind do not pass through the center line.
The position of the front wheel is constant and it is zero mark (origin).
The rear wheels are at 21.7 m mark

Position of the center mass of the plane is calculated as follows;

Let the position of the center mass, Xcm = y

the center mass is 3 m in front of rear wheels, that is

21.7 - y = 3

y = 21.7 - 3

y = 18.7 m

Xcm = 18.7 m

<h3>Mass of the plane at the position of the rear wheels</h3>

Let the mass of the plane at front wheels = M1

Let the mass of the plane at rear wheels = M2

$X_{cm} = \frac{M_1x_1 + M_2x_2}{M_1 + M_2}$

$18.7 = \frac{M_1(0) + M_2(21.7)}{177000} \\\\3,309,900 = 21.7M_2\\\\M_2 = \frac{3,309,900}{21.7} \\\\M_2 = 152,529.95 \ kg$

<h3>Force exerted by the ground on each rear wheel</h3>

There are two rear wheels, and the force exerted on each wheel due to mass of the airplane at this position is calculated as follows;

$W = mg\\\\W_1 = W_2 = \frac{1}{2} (mg) = \frac{1}{2} (152,529.95 \times 9.8) = 743,396.76 \ N= 0.743 \ MN$

<h3>Mass of the plane at the position of the front wheel</h3>

M1 + M2 = 177,000

M1 = 177,000 - M2

M1 = 177,000 - 152,529.95

M1 = 24,470.05 kg

<h3>Force exerted by the ground on the front wheel</h3>

W = mg

W = 24,470.05 x 9.8

W = 239,806.5 N = 0.239 MN

Learn more about center mass here: brainly.com/question/13499822

7 0

2 years ago

Why was nuclear energy first developed?

Helga [31]

Nuclear energy was not developed. It has existed for as long as time has existed, that is, since the big bang.

The thing that was developed was humans' ability to USE nuclear energy, to do what we want it to do, when we want it to do it.

The reason this was first developed was to bomb the holy beans out of Japan, in order to win World War II.

Today (2020), nine of the world's nations are known to have 14,285 nuclear bombs in storage, for the same general purpose. Seven of these nations are storing 1,170 of these bombs (about 8 percent), and the USA and Russia have all the rest ... 13,035 nuclear bombs.

All nine of these nations promise that they have no plan to use their bombs, they don't want to use them, it would be wrong and terrible to use them, and they will never be the first to use them, but they need to modernize their bombs so that theirs are better than anybody else's bombs, and they need to keep their bombs for as long as anybody else has any, and then maybe a little longer, just in case.

In the years after the ability to bomb the holy beans out of other people was developed, and enough equipment was built to do it 14 thousand times, the ability to use nuclear energy for other purposes was also developed. It's used now to generate electrical energy, and to do several jobs in Medical science.

7 0

3 years ago

Imagine you use Nitrogen as your gas. If you have the cold side as cold as you can without liquefying it (78 K), and run the hot

alina1380 [7]

Answer:

The efficiency of a Stirling engine is 74%

Explanation:

Given:

Temperature of gas when it is cold $T_{1} = 78$ K