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lisov135 [29]
3 years ago
14

A 12.0 g bullet was fired horizontally into a 1 kg block of wood. The bullet initially had a speed of 250 m/s. The block of wood

was hanging from a 2 m long piece of (massless) string. After the collision the block/bullet combined object swings upward on the string. Find the height the block/bullet combined object rises.
a. 0.66m
b. 0.45m
c. 0.12 m
d. 0.35 m
e. 0.27m
Physics
1 answer:
Vaselesa [24]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

So height though which combination of block bullet rises is 0.45 m

Explanation:

We have given  mass of the bullet  m_1=12gram=0.012kg

Velocity of the bullet v_1=250m/sec

Mass of block of wood m_2=1kg

Block is at rest so v_2=0m/sec

From conservation of momentum.

m_1v_1+m_2v_2=(m_1+m_2)v

0.012\times 250+0\times 0=(1+0.012)v

v=2.964m/sec

From third equation of motion

h=\frac{v^2}{2g}=\frac{2.964^2}{2\times .8}=0.45m

So option (b) will be the correct answer.

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A particle of mass M moves along a straight line with initial speed vi. A force of magnitude F pushes the particle a distance D
RideAnS [48]

Answer:

Explanation:

Initial kinetic energy of M = 1/2 M vi²

let final velocity be vf

v² = u² + 2a s

vf² =  vi² + 2 (F / M) x D

Kinetic energy

= 1/2 Mvf²

= 1/2 M ( vi² + 2 (F / M) x D

1/2 M vi² + FD

Ratio with initial value

1/2 M  vi² + FD) / 1/2 M  vi²

RK = 1 + FD / 2 M  vi²

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3 years ago
A mover loads a crate onto a truck bed 1.6m from the street using a ramp that is 4.6m long. What is a mechanical advantage?
Ne4ueva [31]

Answer:

Mechanical advantage = 2.875

Explanation:

Given:

A diagram is shown below for the above scenario.

Length of ramp (Effort arm) = 4.6 m

Height of truck bed ( Resistance length) = 1.6 m

Mechanical advantage (MA) is the ratio of effort arm and resistance length.

So, mechanical advantage is given as,

MA=\frac{\textrm{Effort arm}}{\textrm{Resistance length}}= \frac{4.6}{1.6}=2.875

6 0
3 years ago
You set your stationary bike on a high 80-N friction-like resistive force and cycle for 30 min at a speed of 8.0 m/s . Your body
stellarik [79]

A) The change in internal chemical energy is 1.15\cdot 10^7 J

B) The time needed is 1 minute

Explanation:

First of all, we start by calculating the power output of you and the bike, given by:

P=Fv

where

F = 80 N is the force that must be applied in order to overcome friction and travel at constant speed

v = 8.0 m/s is the velocity

Substituting,

P=(80)(8.0)=640 W

The energy output is related to the power by the equation

P=\frac{E}{t}

where:

P = 640 W is the power output

E is the energy output

t = 30 min \cdot 60 = 1800 s is the time elapsed

Solving for E,

E=Pt=(640)(1800)=1.15\cdot 10^6 J

Since the body is 10% efficient at converting chemical energy into mechanical work (which is the output energy), this means that the change in internal chemical energy is given by

\Delta E = \frac{E}{0.10}=\frac{1.15\cdot 10^6}{0.10}=1.15\cdot 10^7 J

B)

From the previous part, we found that in a time of

t = 30 min

the amount of internal chemical energy converted is

E=1.15\cdot 10^7 J

Here we want to find the time t' needed to convert an amount of chemical energy of

E'=3.8\cdot 10^5 J

So we can setup the following proportion:

\frac{t}{E}=\frac{t'}{E'}

And solving for t',

t'=\frac{E't}{E}=\frac{(3.8\cdot 10^5)(30)}{1.15\cdot 10^7}=1 min

Learn more about power and energy:

brainly.com/question/7956557

#LearnwithBrainly

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