HEYA MATE
YOUR ANSWER IS <em><u>D.PLACE</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>IT</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>IN</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>AN</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>ELECTRI</u></em><em><u>C</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>FIELD</u></em>
<em><u>BE</u></em><em><u>CAUSE</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>IT </u></em><em><u>makes</u></em><em><u> sense you can use alternating current to remove magnetism</u></em>
Answer:
B = 4.059 x 10¹⁵ T
Explanation:
Given,
Number of loop, N = 400
radius of loop, r = 0.65 x 10⁻¹⁵ m
Current, I = 1.05 x 10⁴ A
Magnetic field at the center of the loop
B = 4.059 x 10¹⁵ T
Complete question:
The coordinate of a particle in meters is given by x(t)=1 6t- 3.0t³ , where the time tis in seconds. The
particle is momentarily at rest at t is:
Select one:
a. 9.3s
b. 1.3s
C. 0.75s
d.5.3s
e. 7.3s
Answer:
b. 1.3 s
Explanation:
Given;
position of the particle, x(t)=1 6t- 3.0t³
when the particle is at rest, the velocity is zero.
velocity = dx/dt
dx /dt = 16 - 9t²
16 - 9t² = 0
9t² = 16
t² = 16 /9
t = √(16 / 9)
t = 4/3
t = 1.3 s
Therefore, the particle is momentarily at rest at t = 1.3 s
The solution to the problem is as follows:
<span>First, I'd convert 188 mi/hr to ft/s. You should end up with about ~275.7 ft/s.
So now write down all the values you know:
Vfinal = 275.7 ft/s
Vinitial = 0 ft/s
distance = 299ft
</span>
<span>Now just plug in Vf, Vi and d to solve
</span>
<span>Vf^2 = Vi^2 + 2 a d
</span><span>BTW: That will give you the acceleration in ft/s^2. You can convert that to "g"s by dividing it by 32 since 1 g is 32 ft/s^2.</span>
