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Sonbull [250]
3 years ago
10

Ten identical steel wires have equal lengths L and equal "spring constants" k. The wires are connected end to end so that the re

sultant wire has length 10L. What is the "spring constant" of the resulting wire?
Physics
2 answers:
lapo4ka [179]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

K_{system} = \frac{k}{10}

Explanation:

When the springs are connected end to end, it means they are connected in series. When the springs are connected in series, the stress applied to the system gets applied to each of the springs without any change in magnitude while the strain of the system is the sum total of strains of each spring. The spring constant of the resultant system is given as,

\frac{1}{K_{system}} = (\frac{1}{K_{1}})+(\frac{1}{K_{2}})+(\frac{1}{K_{3}})+ (\frac{1}{K_{4}})+.....+(\frac{1}{K_{n}})

Here, n = 10

Spring constant of each spring = k

Thus,

\frac{1}{K_{system}} = (\frac{1}{K_{1}})+(\frac{1}{K_{2}})+(\frac{1}{K_{3}})+ (\frac{1}{K_{4}})+.....+(\frac{1}{K_{10}})

\frac{1}{K_{system}} = (\frac{1}{k})+(\frac{1}{k})+(\frac{1}{k})+(\frac{1}{k})+(\frac{1}{k})+(\frac{1}{k})+(\frac{1}{k})+(\frac{1}{k})+(\frac{1}{k})+(\frac{1}{k})

\frac{1}{K_{system}} = \frac{10}{k}

K_{system} = \frac{k}{10}

wolverine [178]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

K_{eq}= \frac{K}{10}

Explanation:

When springs are connected end to end their effective spring constant

\frac{1}{K_{eq}}=\frac{1}{K_1} +\frac{1}{K_2}.................................\frac{1}{K_{10}}

all ten springs same spring constant K

⇒K=K1=K2........K10

therefore,

\frac{1}{K_{eq}}=\frac{1}{K} +\frac{1}{K}.................................\frac{1}{K}

\frac{1}{K_{eq}} =\frac{10}{K}

⇒K_{eq}= \frac{K}{10}

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A small ball of mass 2.00 kilograms is moving at a velocity 1.50 meters/second. It hits a larger, stationary ball of mass 5.00 k
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                                     = (1/2) (2 kg) (1.5 m/s)

                                     =    (1 kg)  (2.25 m²/s²)

                                     =        2.25 joules.

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                     If it seems that some energy disappeared,
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The small ball has 2.25 joules of kinetic energy before the collision.
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4 years ago
Tennis balls traveling at greater than 100 mph routinely bounce off tennis rackets. At some sufficiently high speed, however, th
Kipish [7]

Answer:

Probability of tunneling is 10^{- 1.17\times 10^{32}}

Solution:

As per the question:

Velocity of the tennis ball, v = 120 mph = 54 m/s

Mass of the tennis ball, m = 100 g = 0.1 kg

Thickness of the tennis ball, t = 2.0 mm = 2.0\times 10^{- 3}\ m

Max velocity of the tennis ball, v_{m} = 200\ mph = 89 m/s

Now,

The maximum kinetic energy of the tennis ball is given by:

KE = \frac{1}{2}mv_{m}^{2} = \frac{1}{2}\times 0.1\times 89^{2} = 396.05\ J

Kinetic energy of the tennis ball, KE' = \frac{1}{2}mv^{2} = 0.5\times 0.1\times 54^{2} = 154.8\ m/s

Now, the distance the ball can penetrate to is given by:

\eta = \frac{\bar{h}}{\sqrt{2m(KE - KE')}}

\bar{h} = \frac{h}{2\pi} = \frac{6.626\times 10^{- 34}}{2\pi} = 1.0545\times 10^{- 34}\ Js

Thus

\eta = \frac{1.0545\times 10^{- 34}}{\sqrt{2\times 0.1(396.05 - 154.8)}}

\eta = \frac{1.0545\times 10^{- 34}}{\sqrt{2\times 0.1(396.05 - 154.8)}}

\eta = 1.52\times 10^{-35}\ m

Now,

We can calculate the tunneling probability as:

P(t) = e^{\frac{- 2t}{\eta}}

P(t) = e^{\frac{- 2\times 2.0\times 10^{- 3}}{1.52\times 10^{-35}}} = e^{-2.63\times 10^{32}}

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irina1246 [14]

Answer:

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Explanation:

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