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enyata [817]
3 years ago
15

Explain why machine can"t be 100% efficient practically?​

Physics
2 answers:
inna [77]3 years ago
8 0
Retiro en la capital y se lo dijo que el gobierno no tiene la casa en el bus y el que no tiene que ver si no
Zigmanuir [339]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Heat

Explanation:

Heat is the main component in why everything is not 100% efficient. Heat is a byproduct of everything and cannot be avoided.

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One train (22,680 kg) moving east at 170 km/h collides with a car (1,200 kg) that was moving north at 5 km/h. They get attached
bezimeni [28]
  • The final velocity of the objects is 229.82km/hr
  • Since energy was lost after the collision, the type of collision that occurs is an elastic collision.
  • The required force is 1,090,918,000N
  • The amount of Kinetic energy lost is 12,401,976.656Joules

According to the law of collision'

m1u1 + m2u2 = (m1+m2)v

Given the following:

m1 = 22,680kg

u1 =170km/h

m2 = 1200kg

u2 = 5km/hr

Get the final velocity "v"

22680(170) + 1200(5) = (22680 + 1200)v

3855600 + 6000 = 12880v

3,861,600 = 12880v

v = 3,861,600/12,880

v = 229.82km/hr

Hence the final velocity of the objects is 229.82km/hr

Since energy was lost after the collision, the type of collision that occurs is an elastic collision.

According to Newton's second law, the formula for calculating the force is expressed as;

F = ma

F = m(v-u)/t

F = 22680+1200(229.82-175)/t

Ft = 23880(54.82)

F = 1,309,101.6/0.0012

F = 1,090,918,000N

Hence the required force is 1,090,918,000N

KE lost = Kinetic energy after collision - Kinetic energy before collision

Kinetic energy after collision = 1/2 * 12880 * 229.82²

Kinetic energy after collision = 340,142,976.656 Jolues

Kinetic energy before collision = 1/2 * 22680(170)²+ 1/2*1200(5)²

Kinetic energy before collision = 327,726,000 + 15000

Kinetic energy before collision = 327,741,000

Kinetic energy lost = 340,142,976.656 - 327,741,000 =  12,401,976.656Joules

Learn more here: brainly.com/question/9537044

8 0
2 years ago
Why was nuclear energy first developed?
Helga [31]

Nuclear energy was not developed.  It has existed for as long as time has existed, that is, since the big bang.

The thing that was developed was humans' ability to USE nuclear energy, to do what we want it to do, when we want it to do it.

The reason this was first developed was to bomb the holy beans out of Japan, in order to win World War II.

Today (2020), nine of the world's nations are known to have 14,285 nuclear bombs in storage, for the same general purpose.  Seven of these nations are storing 1,170 of these bombs (about 8 percent), and the USA and Russia have all the rest ... 13,035 nuclear bombs.

All nine of these nations promise that they have no plan to use their bombs, they don't want to use them, it would be wrong and terrible to use them, and they will never be the first to use them, but they need to modernize their bombs so that theirs are better than anybody else's bombs, and they need to keep their bombs for as long as anybody else has any, and then maybe a little longer, just in case.

In the years after the ability to bomb the holy beans out of other people was developed, and enough equipment was built to do it 14 thousand times, the ability to use nuclear energy for other purposes was also developed.  It's used now to generate electrical energy, and to do several jobs in Medical science.  

7 0
3 years ago
Will give brainliest!
JulsSmile [24]

Answer:

chemical symbol

Explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
What are examples of astronomical cycles
kondor19780726 [428]
One example would be that of an Eclipse. It is an astronomical event that occurs when an astronomical object is temporarily obscured, either by passing into the shadow of another body or by having another body pass between it and the viewer. ( Like when the moon's shadow crosses the earth's surface you get a solar eclipse.)
Another example would be a year. A year is the orbital period of the Earth moving in its orbit around the Sun.
7 0
3 years ago
In a transverse wave, the motion of the disturbance is in what direction relative to the wave motion? opposite parallel perpendi
Vikentia [17]

Answer:

\displaystyle Perpendicular

Explanation:

<em>Longitudinal</em><em> </em><em>waves</em><em> </em>are parallel to the direction of the motion of the disturbance, while <em>transverse</em><em> </em><em>waves</em><em> </em>are perpendicular to the direction of the motion of the disturbance.

I am joyous to assist you anytime.

8 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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