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solong [7]
3 years ago
13

Aless-intense wave will have fewer than a more-intense wave.

Physics
1 answer:
puteri [66]3 years ago
6 0

Decibels

Explanation:

A less intense wave will have fewer decibels than a more intense wave.

The decibel is the unit of measuring the intensity of sound waves.

The intensity of sound wave is the power carried by sound waves in a unit area.

  • Loudness is intimately related to decibels.
  • Loudness is the intensity of sound in the hearing range.

learn more:

Amplitude of sound wave brainly.com/question/2845448

#learnwithBrainly

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A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field B with a velocity v at right angles to the field. It moves in a circle with p
alukav5142 [94]

A) d. 10T

When a charged particle moves at right angle to a uniform magnetic field, it experiences a force whose magnitude os given by

F=qvB

where q is the charge of the particle, v is the velocity, B is the strength of the magnetic field.

This force acts as a centripetal force, keeping the particle in a circular motion - so we can write

qvB = \frac{mv^2}{r}

which can be rewritten as

v=\frac{qB}{mr}

The velocity can be rewritten as the ratio between the lenght of the circumference and the period of revolution (T):

\frac{2\pi r}{T}=\frac{qB}{mr}

So, we get:

T=\frac{2\pi m r^2}{qB}

We see that this the period of revolution is directly proportional to the mass of the particle: therefore, if the second particle is 10 times as massive, then its period will be 10 times longer.

B) a. f/10

The frequency of revolution of a particle in uniform circular motion is

f=\frac{1}{T}

where

f is the frequency

T is the period

We see that the frequency is inversely proportional to the period. Therefore, if the period of the more massive particle is 10 times that of the smaller particle:

T' = 10 T

Then its frequency of revolution will be:

f'=\frac{1}{T'}=\frac{1}{(10T)}=\frac{f}{10}

6 0
3 years ago
A wheel of mass 4kg is pulled up a plane inclined at 30° to the horizontal by a force of 45N applied to the axle and parallel to
Len [333]

Answer:

v = 10 m/s

Explanation:

Let's assume the wheel does not slip as it accelerates.

Energy theory is more straightforward than kinematics in my opinion.

Work done on the wheel

W = Fd = 45(12) = 540 J

Some is converted to potential energy

PE = mgh = 4(9.8)12sin30 = 235.2 J

As there is no friction mentioned, the remainder is kinetic energy

KE = 540 - 235.2 = 304.8 J

KE = ½mv² + ½Iω²

ω = v/R

KE = ½mv² + ½I(v/R)² = ½(m + I/R²)v²

v = √(2KE / (m + I/R²))

v = √(2(304.8) / (4 + 0.5/0.5²)) = √101.6

v = 10.07968...

5 0
3 years ago
What affect does friction have on motion
satela [25.4K]

Answer: friction reduces the speed during motion

Explanation:

The more the friction, the lesser the speed during motion

3 0
3 years ago
I just need the answer
Archy [21]

Answer:

I'll try to help which grade are you?

7 0
3 years ago
ANSWER QUICK 30 POINTS
bezimeni [28]

Answer:

Gravity creates stars and planets by pulling together the material from which they are made.

Explanation: Thats the only thing i have im stuck on the tga quiz

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