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qaws [65]
3 years ago
11

A 2-m3 rigid tank initially contains air at 100 kPa and 22°C. The tank is connected to a supply line through a valve. Air is flo

wing in the supply line at 600 kPa and 22°C. The valve is opened, and air is allowed to enter the tank until the pressure in the tank reaches the line pressure, at which point the valve is closed. A thermometer placed in the tank indicates that the air temperature at the final state is 77°C. Determine (a) the mass of air that has entered the tank and (b) the amount of heat transfer
Engineering
1 answer:
Finger [1]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

9.58 Kg of air has entered the tank.

heat entered=3483.76 Kilo.Joule

Explanation:

(A) R=287 Kilo.J/Kg.K

as per initial conditions P=100 Kilo.Pa ,V=2 cubic meter, T=22 C=295.15 K,

using the relation P*V=m*R*T

m=(100*1000*2)/(287*295.15)=2.36 Kg this is the mass that is already present in tank.

after filling tank at 600 Kilo.Pa.

P=600 Kilo Pa T=77 C=350.15 K

P*V=m*R*T

m=(600*1000*2)/(287*350.15)=11.94 Kg

mass that has entered=11.94-2.36=9.58 Kg

(b) using air psychometric  property table

specific heat content initial  100 KILO Pa and 22 C=295.576 Kilo.Joule/Kg

specific heat content final  600 Kilo Pa and 77 C=350.194 Kilo.Joule/Kg

heat at initial stage=295.576*2.36=697.56 Kilo.Joule

heat at final stage=350.194*11.94=4181.32 Kilo.Joule

heat entered=4181.32-697.56=3483.76 Kilo.Joule

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Hitman42 [59]

Answer:

All of the above

Explanation:

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Once the material gets loaded, the instantaneous creep would start off and it is close to electric strain. in the primary creep area, the rate of the strain falls as the material hardens. in the secondary area, a balance between the hardening and recrystallization occurs. The material would get to be fractured hen recrstallization happens.  As temperature is raised the recrystallization gets to be more.

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2 years ago
The current in a 20 mH inductor is known to be: 푖푖=40푚푚푚푚푡푡≤0푖푖=푚푚1푒푒−10,000푡푡+푚푚2푒푒−40,000푡푡푚푚푡푡≥0The voltage across the induct
Anni [7]

Answer:

a) The expression for electrical current: i = -0.134*e^(-10,000*t) + 0.174*e^(-40,000*t) A

The expression for voltage: v = 26.8*e^(-10,000*t) - 139.2*e^(-40,000*t) V

b) For t<=0 the inductor is storing energy and for t > 0 the inductor is delivering energy.

Explanation:

The question text is corrupted. I found the complete question on the web and it goes as follow:

The current in a 20 mH inductor is known to be: i = 40 mA at t<=0 and i = A1*e^(-10,000*t) + A2*e^(-40,000*t) A at t>0. The voltage across the inductor (passive sign convention) is -68 V at t = 0.

a. Find the numerical expressions for i and v for t>0.

b. Specify the time intervals when the inductor is storing energy and is delivering energy.

A inductor stores energy in the form of a magnetic field, it behaves in a way that oposes sudden changes in the electric current that flows through it, therefore at moment just after t = 0, that for convenience we'll call t = 0+, the current should be the same as t=0, so:

i = A1*e^(-10,000*(0)) + A2*e^(-40,000*(0))

40*10^(-3) = A1*e^(-10,000*0) + A2*e^(-40,000*0)

40*10^(-3) = (A1)*1 + (A2)*1

40*10^(-3) = A1 + A2

A1 + A2 = 40*10^(-3)

Since we have two variables (A1 and A2) we need another equation to be able to solve for both. For that reason we will use the voltage expression for a inductor, that is:

V = L*di/dt

We have the voltage drop across the inductor at t=0 and we know that the current at t=0 and the following moments after that should be equal, so we can use the current equation for t > 0 to find the derivative on that point, so:

di/dt = d(A1*e^(-10,000*t) + A2*e^(-40,000*t))/dt

di/dt = [d(-10,000*t)/dt]*A1*e^(-10,000*t) + [d(-40,000*t)/dt]*A2*e^(-40,000*t)

di/dt = -10,000*A1*e^(-10,000*t) -40,000*A2*e^(-40,000*t)

By applying t = 0 to this expression we have:

di/dt (at t = 0) = -10,000*A1*e^(-10,000*0) - 40,000*A2*e^(-40,000*0)

di/dt (at t = 0) = -10,000*A1*e^0 - 40,000*A2*e^0

di/dt (at t = 0) = -10,000*A1- 40,000*A2

We can now use the voltage equation for the inductor at t=0, that is:

v = L di/dt (at t=0)

68 = [20*10^(-3)]*(-10,000*A1 - 40,000*A2)

68 = -400*A1 -800*A2

-400*A1 - 800*A2 = 68

We now have a system with two equations and two variable, therefore we can solve it for both:

A1 + A2 = 40*10^(-3)

-400*A1 - 800*A2 = 68

Using the first equation we have:

A1 = 40*10^(-3) - A2

We can apply this to the second equation to solve for A2:

-400*[40*10^(-3) - A2] - 800*A2 = 68

-1.6 + 400*A2 - 800*A2 = 68

-1.6 -400*A2 = 68

-400*A2 = 68 + 1.6

A2 = 69.6/400 = 0.174

We use this value of A2 to calculate A1:

A1 = 40*10^(-3) - 0.174 = -0.134

Applying these values on the expression we have the equations for both the current and tension on the inductor:

i = -0.134*e^(-10,000*t) + 0.174*e^(-40,000*t) A

v = [20*10^(-3)]*[-10,000*(-0.134)*e^(-10,000*t) -40,000*(0.174)*e^(-40,000*t)]

v = [20*10^(-3)]*[1340*e^(-10,000*t) - 6960*e^(-40,000*t)]

v = 26.8*e^(-10,000*t) - 139.2*e^(-40,000*t) V

b) The question states that the current for the inductor at t > 0 is a exponential powered by negative numbers it is expected that its current will reach 0 at t = infinity. So, from t =0 to t = infinity the inductor is delivering energy. Since at time t = 0 the inductor already has a current flow of 40 mA and a voltage, we can assume it already had energy stored, therefore for t<0 it is storing energy.

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