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nikitadnepr [17]
3 years ago
6

The mass m1 enters from the left with velocity v0 and strikes a mass m2 > m1 which is initially at rest. The collision betwee

n the blocks is perfectly elastic. The mass m2 then compresses the spring an amount x.
True, False, greater than, equal to, less than :

1. Immediately after colliding with m2, the mass m1 stops and has zero velocity.
2. Immediately after the collision, the momentum of m2 is ....... the initial momentum of m1.
3. The maximum energy stored in the spring is ...... the initial energy of m1.
4. Immediately after the collision, the energy of m2 is ...... the initial energy of m1.
Physics
1 answer:
enot [183]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

1. False 2) greater than. 3) less than 4) less than

Explanation:

1)

  • As the collision is perfectly elastic, kinetic energy must be conserved.
  • The expression for the final velocity of the mass m₁, for a perfectly elastic collision, is as follows:

        v_{1f} = v_{10} *\frac{m_{1} -m_{2} }{m_{1} +m_{2}}

  • As it can be seen, as m₁ ≠ m₂, v₁f ≠ 0.

2)

  • As total momentum must be conserved, we can see that as m₂ > m₁, from the equation above the final momentum of m₁ has an opposite sign to the initial one, so the momentum of m₂ must be greater than the initial momentum of m₁, to keep both sides of the equation balanced.

3)    

  • The maximum energy stored in the in the spring is given by the following expression:

       U =\frac{1}{2} *k * A^{2}

  • where A = maximum compression of the spring.
  • This energy is always the sum of the elastic potential energy and the kinetic energy of the mass (in absence of friction).
  • When the spring is in a relaxed state, the speed of the mass is maximum, so, its kinetic energy is maximum too.
  • Just prior to compress the spring, this kinetic energy is the kinetic energy of m₂, immediately after the collision.
  • As total kinetic energy must be conserved, the following condition must be met:

       KE_{10} = KE_{1f}  + KE_{2f}

  • So, it is clear that KE₂f  < KE₁₀
  • Therefore, the maximum energy stored in the spring is less than the initial energy in m₁.

4)

  • As explained above, if total kinetic energy must be conserved:

        KE_{10} = KE_{1f}  + KE_{2f}

  • So as kinetic energy is always positive, KEf₂ < KE₁₀.
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<h2>Time taken by dryer to come up to speed is 1.625 seconds.</h2>

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A 10 g particle undergoes SHM with an amplitude of 2.0 mm and a maximum acceleration of magnitude 8.0 multiplied by 103 m/s2, an
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Answer:

a)T=0.0031416s

b)v_{max}=6.283\frac{m}{s}

c) E=0.1974J

d)F=80N

e)F=40N

Explanation:

1) Important concepts

Simple harmonic motion is defined as "the motion of a mass on a spring when it is subject to the linear elastic restoring force given by Hooke's Law (F=-Kx). The motion experimented by the particle is sinusoidal in time and demonstrates a single resonant frequency".

2) Part a

The equation that describes the simple armonic motion is given by X=Acos(\omega t +\phi)    (1)

And taking the first and second derivate of the equation (1) we obtain the velocity and acceleration function respectively.

For the velocity:

\frac{dX}{dt}=v(t)=-A\omega sin(\omega t +\phi)   (2)

For the acceleration

\frac{d^2 X}{dt}=a(t)=-A\omega^2 cos(\omega t+\phi)   (3)

As we can see in equation (3) the acceleration would be maximum when the cosine term would be -1 and on this case:

A\omega^2=8x10^{3}\frac{m}{s^2}

Since we know the amplitude A=0.002m  we can solve for \omega like this:

\omega =\sqrt{\frac{8000\frac{m}{s^2}}{0.002m}}=2000\frac{rad}{s}

And we with this value we can find the period with the following formula

T=\frac{2\pi}{\omega}=\frac{2 \pi}{2000\frac{rad}{s}}=0.0031416s

3) Part b

From equation (2) we see that the maximum velocity occurs when the sine function is euqal to -1 and on this case we have that:

v_{max}=A\omega =0.002mx2000\frac{rad}{s}=4\frac{m rad}{s}=4\frac{m}{s}

4) Part c

In order to find the total mechanical energy of the oscillator we can use this formula:

E=\frac{1}{2}mv^2_{max}=\frac{1}{2}(0.01kg)(6.283\frac{m}{s})^2=0.1974J

5) Part d

When we want to find the force from the 2nd Law of Newton we know that F=ma.

At the maximum displacement we know that X=A, and in order to that happens cos(\omega t +\phi)=1, and we also know that the maximum acceleration is given by::

|\frac{d^2X}{dt^2}|=A\omega^2

So then we have that:

F=ma=mA\omega^2

And since we have everything we can find the force

F=ma=0.01Kg(0.002m)(2000\frac{rad}{s})^2 =80N

6) Part e

When the mass it's at the half of it's maximum displacement the term cos(\omega t +\phi)=1/2 and on this case the acceleration would be given by;

|\frac{d^2X}{dt^2}|=A\omega^2 cos(\omega t +\phi)=A\omega^2 \frac{1}{2}

And the force would be given by:

F=ma=\frac{1}{2}mA\omega^2

And replacing we have:

F=\frac{1}{2}(0.01Kg)(0.002m)(2000\frac{rad}{s})^2 =40N

8 0
3 years ago
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